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Exam Code: 000-276
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Business Process Manager Express or Standard Edition V8.0, BPM Application Development)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 53 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 A BPM application developer needs to create custom SQL queries targeting the Business
Performance Data Warehouse to satisfy a customer's reporting requirements. While browsing the
system catalog of the database management system, the developer notices tables and views
corresponding to the tracking groups defined in the process application. Which database artifacts
should the developer query to obtain only the actively tracked data? The BPM application developer
should query the:
A. views, because the views contains more recent data than the tables.
B. views, because the views contain only the data resulting from the updated tracking definitions.
C. tables, because the tables contains more recent data than the views.
D. tables, because the tables contain only the data resulting from the updated tracking definitions.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A BPM application developer has completed the development of a process application. The
team lead has now directed the application developer to install the snapshot onto a staging server
for additional testing before it is moved into production. Assuming the default Process Server
settings are in place, what minimum level of access must the developer have in order to install the
snapshot onto the staging server? The application developer must have, at a minimum:
A. write access to the process application with no additional group membership.
B. write access to the process application and must be a member of the process-center-installgroup
as defined in the 100Custom.xml file.
C. administrative access to the process application with no additional group membership.
D. administrative access to the process application and must be a member of the
process-centerinstall-group as defined in the 100Custom.xml file.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A BPM application developer is developing assets at a company with the following BPM
infrastructure:
A) One Process Center environment -The BPM application developer has all security privileges
required to access this environment
B) Three runtime environments- Test, Staging, and Production -Each runtime environment is a two
node, clustered environment -They are all configured as "online" environments -The BPM
application developer has all security privileges required to access those environments
The BPM application developer has all security privileges required to access those environments
The BPM application developer has all security privileges required to access those environments
The BPM application developer has been asked to create a Saved Search in each environment using
the Process Admin Console. How many times must the BPM application developer open a Process
Admin Console to make this change?
A. 1 time, since the Process Center environment's Process Admin console manages all online
environments
B. 2 times, once for the Process Center environment and once for the runtime environments
C. 4 times, since each environment has it's own Process Admin console
D. 7 times, since each node in each environment has its own Process Admin console
Answer: C

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NO.4 A BPM application developer is developing a BPM solution in a process application called
'Auto Loan Review Process' (ALREV). ALREV has an existing dependency on a toolkit called 'Financial
Calculation Services' (FCSERV). The developer is asked to update an integration service in FCSERV
and use that new service in ALREV.
What steps must the developer take to ensure that ALREV will utilize the new service created in
FCSERV?
A. 1. Update the integration service in FCSERV
2.Take a snapshot of FCSERV
3.Update the dependency of ALREV from the FCSERV toolkit
B. 1. Update the integration service in FCSERV
2.Take a snapshot of FCSERV
3.Update dependency on FCSERV from the ALREV process application
C. 1. Create a new integration service in ALREV
2.Move the new integration service from ALREV to FCSERV
3.Take a snapshot of FCSERV
D. 1. Take a snapshot of FCSERV
2.Update the integration service in FCSERV
3.Update dependency on FCSERV in the ALREV process application
Answer: B

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NO.5 After deploying a snapshot onto the production server, the BPM application developer wants
to have two development versions of the process application, one for the resolution of issues that
needs to get fixed immediately in production and one for the development of new features. How
can the BPM application developer obtain the necessary development versions without creating a
new process application?
A. Create a new snapshot for the process application.
B. Create a clone of the snapshot installed in production.
C. Create a new track from the snapshot installed in production.
D. Import the snapshot installed in production into the Process Center.
Answer: C

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NO.6 A BPM application developer has completed the development of a high profile process
application and is now ready to deploy the solution into the test environment. The application
developer has been told to allow one peer developer and the technical team lead to review and
approve the work before it can be installed onto the test server. The application developer's
manager has requested that the process of gathering these approvals be automated for auditing
purposes. What steps must the BPM application developer take in order to fulfill this requirement?
The BPM application developer must:
A. enable governance on the high profile process and use wsadmin to install the process.
B. create a business process definition, inside of the high profile process application, to implement
the approvals governance process.
C. ask a user with the administrative authority to create a System Governance toolkit dependency to
create a process application that will be used for governance.
D. ensure that there is a task in the governance process that will allow a designated person to install
the process, using Process Center, after all approvals have been received.
Answer: C

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NO.7 The business owner of a purchasing process has requested a report that displays the total time
of three activities. What should the BPM application developer use to send the data to the
Performance Data Warehouse to create this report?
A. A Timing Interval
B. A Service Level Agreement
C. Exposed Process Variables
D. Shared Business Objects
Answer: A

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NO.8 A process owner of an insurance company requests to receive an email if the amount of a loan
is higher than $50,000. After creating the custom Key Performance Indicator (KPI) Amount (currency)
and associating it to the activity, how should the BPM application developer configure the
Assignment Setting to set the value of the KPI to the amount of the loan object? Uncheck "use KPI
defaults", and apply the following settings.
A. Assignment Type: Select Absolute Value Value: tw.local.loan.amount
B. Assignment Type: Select Absolute Value Value: tw.perf.value = tw.local.loan.amount
C. Assignment Type: Select custom JavaScript Value: tw.perf.value = tw.local.loan.amount
D. Assignment Type: Select custom JavaScript Value: tw.local.loan.amount
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 00M-654
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Emptoris Telecom Expense Management Sales Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 39 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is false?
A. IBM offers a fully automated TEM lifecycle solution across the telecom infrastructure including
data, voice, and mobile assets
B. The IBM offer focuses on wireless telecomm assets only
C. The IBM offer includes all critical TEM processes required by the Gartner TEM definition
D. The IBM offer is composed of multiple software platforms
Answer: B

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NO.2 The global TEM Compounded Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) is approximately:
A. 10%
B. 12%
C. 17%
D. 21%
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.reportlinker.com/p0787925 /Global-Telecom-Expense-Management-Market.h
tml(see first para on the page)

NO.3 Customers are indicating a desire for termination-at-will contracting, which indicates:
A. Short sales cycles
B. A vote of no confidence
C. Good buyer relationships
D. Low cost purchase
Answer: A

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NO.4 In TEM what does the acronym "BYOD" stand for?
A. Buy Your Own Data
B. Beyond Data
C. Bring Your Own Device
D. Bring Your Own Design
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following are considered "tier 1" competitors?
A. Tangoe
B. SAP
C. AT & T
D. Telesoft
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 00M-663
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Digital Marketing Optimization Sales Mastery v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 When it comes to DMO's digital marketing execution, what are some of the key capabilities?
A. Strategic planning and budgeting
B. Product recommendations and email targeting
C. Measuring customer interaction across their lifecycle
D. Generating a pipeline of qualified leads
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is one benefit listed in the value proposition for the DMO solution's customer profiles
(LIVE Profiles)?
A. Instant insight into opt-in permissions
B. Provide a complete picture of customer interactions
C. Detailed history of a customer's word-of-mouth activity
D. Ability to analyze customer sentiment and opinions
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are some of the primary products involved in the DMO solution's ability to deliver
compelling personalization?
A. IBM Lifecycle and IBM AdTarget
B. IBM Digital Data Exchange and IBM Impression Attribution
C. IBM Digital Analytics on Premises
D. IBM Marketing Optimization and Interaction History
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which marketing channel does IBM Impression Attribution primarily influence?
A. Email marketing
B. Display advertising
C. Social media
D. Mobile channels
Answer: B

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Reference:http://www-03.ibm.com/software/products/us/en/impression-attribution/

NO.5 The most persuading method to sell Tealeaf to prospects is:
A. Differentiate Tealeaf from competitors
B. Tell Tealeaf customer stories
C. Tell prospects about the benefits of Tealeaf
D. Sell products at a discounted price
Answer: B

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NO.6 Name the 3 factors that determine the price of Tealeaf software:
A. Page count, #Tealeaf Users, and Products
B. Products. #Tealeaf Users, and #Units
C. #Units, Page Count and #Tealeaf Users
D. Products. Page Count and #Units
Answer: B

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NO.7 What market factors is this target audience looking to address with the DMO solution?
A. Data security
B. Privacy concerns
C. Just-In-Time inventory
D. Data explosion and social media
Answer: D

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NO.8 The products in CBA Suite consists of all the following except:
A. cxReveal
B. cxView
C. cxResults
D. cxOverstat
E. cxImpact
Answer: A,C

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Reference:http://www-03.ibm.com/software/products/us/en/customer-behavior-analysis/

NO.9 What is IBM Multichannel Analytics designed to help marketers achieve?
A. Push messaging across multiple marketing channels
B. Segmentation of marketing activities across web, mobile and social
C. One-to-one customer interaction across multiple channels
D. Improved insight via incorporation of offline data
Answer: C

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NO.10 What are the two primary benefits for companies using Tealeaf?
A. Marketing placement and IT performance
B. IT performance and data analytics
C. Conversion and retention
D. Data analytics and retention
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-N45
Exam Name: IBM (IBM InfoSphere Information Server for Data Integration Fundamentals Technical Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 55 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 For the Information Server Repository, which Relational Database Management System (RDMS)
CANNOT be used?
A. Microsoft SQL Server
B. Informix
C. DB2 UDB
D. Oracle
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is a valid Write Table action in the Connector Stages?
A. Append
B. Replace
C. Truncate
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which type of Join would you select for the Join Stage to output unmatched records from both
input data sources?
A. Inner join
B. Left outer join
C. Right outer join
D. Full outer join
Answer: D

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NO.4 In a Job Sequence, what is the purpose for the use of Checkpoints?
A. Monitor performance and failure for each stage
B. Automatically restart a job
C. Record the log information for each trigger
D. Restart a job from the latest Checkpoint in case of job failures
Answer: D

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NO.5 Where are Table Definitions stored?
A. Information Server metadata repository
B. In the file system as a binary file
C. In the file system as a csv file
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.6 In DataStage, which client can be used to set environment variables at project level?
A. DataStage Designer
B. DataStage Administrator
C. DataStage Director
D. Information Server Web Console
Answer: B

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NO.7 Using a Job Sequence, which of the following tasks CANNOT be performed?
A. Define specific user variables and make them available within a Job Sequence
B. Drop a database table using a script, then start two different parallel jobs in sequence when a file
appears in a specific directory
C. Run two different parallel jobs in sequence and use job parameters to pass different
$APT_CONFIG _FILE values for each of them
D. Create multiple Exception Handlers stages to handle different types of failures
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which statement about Metadata Workbench is incorrect?
A. It can extend data lineage to display data integration flows that are outside of Information Server
B. It relies on the repository functions in DataStage Designer for impact analysis
C. It displays data lineage reports
D. It allows Metadata Workbench administrators to associate data stewards with data objects
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-622
Exam Name: IBM (System z Business Resiliency Solution Selling)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 A customer's service level agreement has the following components and configuration
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-RTO=24 hours -RPO=1 hour -Flash Copy to a single set of disks at a remote site -Tape backup once
per day
What would be the state of the data if a disaster occurred during a resynchronization process?
A. There would be some data loss, but the data would need to be resynchronized.
B. There would be some data loss, but RPO and RTO would support service level agreements.
C. The data would be unreliable and their RTO and RPQ would exceed service level agreements.
D. The data would be reliable with the tape backup, and support the RTO, but the RPO would
exceed service level agreements.
Answer: C

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4. When considering an environment with one zEnterprise server (CEO) and one instance of z/OS,
which of the following contributes to High Availability?
A. Parallel sysplex
B. Application failover
C. Processor Unit Sparing
D. Multiple copies of the data
Answer: C

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5. Which of the following are typically included as a part of the services component in any of the
GDPS family of products?
A. Project planning Local field support Installation assistance tools Web based training programs
B. Disaster recovery planning Development of test methodology Network implementation services
Remote implementation assistance
C. Availability planning Onsite education and training Configuration recommendations Installation
and customization assistance
D. Sizing tools TCO cost recovery tools Workload and batch analysis tools Capacity and performance
monitoring tools
Answer: C

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6. Which of the following should be included in a manufacturing customer's Business Resilience
plan?
A. Supply chain management procedure
B. Security badge replacement procedure
C. Process to record employee time cards
D. Procurement and capital acquisition processes
Answer: A

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7. A customer has an RTO of 1 to 2 hours, and an RPO of <10 seconds. The primary concerns are
to protect against a regional failure and the cost of the solution. Which of the following supports
these requirements?
A. GDPS/XRC
B. GDPSMZGM
C. GDPS/PPRC
D. GDPS/Active Active
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following considered as an element of High Availability for the System z platform?
A. GRS STAR
B. Capacity Backup (CBU)
C. Sysplex Failure Management (SPM)
D. Modified Indirect Data Address Word (MIDAW) facility
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer is documenting their Disaster Recovery process, and is considering all aspects of
running the business.
The following elements have been identified as essential:
-Secondary data center location and equipment -Key responsibilities of critical business units
-Up-to-date emergency contact information for all staff
In addition to these elements, which personnel should be listed as essential to be actively engaged
in the event of a disaster?
A. Mid-level management
Storage administrators
Application development programmer(s)
Network administrator(s)
B. System programmer(s)
Performance and capacity management team
Network administrator(s)
Operations analyst
C. Workload schedulers
System operator(s)
Storage administrator(s)
Disaster Recovery Manager
D. Database administrator(s)
System programmer(s)
Network administrator(s)
Disaster Recovery manager
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-619
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Informix 12.10 System Administrator)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 130 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which Informix utility can be used to customize the onconfig file?
A. ifxdeploy
B. genoncfg
C. dbaccess
D. onparams
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two technologies use the ENCRYPT_MAC configuration parameter to control the level
of message authentication code (MAC) generation? (Choose two.)
A. On-disk encryption
B. Enterprise Replication
C. Column level encryption
D. High-Availability Data Replication
E. Server-to-server distributed query communication
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 The Rolling Window clause of the ALTER FRAGMENT MODIFY INTERVAL statement CANNOT
define a purging policy on a table that has which two attributes? (Choose two.)
A. The table has a ROWID shadow column.
B. The table has a Fragment By Range index.
C. The table has a Unique Key being used by ER.
D. The Fragment Key is defined with multiple columns.
E. The Primary Key for the table is referenced by a foreign key constraint.
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT possible during a non-root Informix Server installation?
A. Role Separation
B. Create users and groups
C. Create a database server instance
D. Secure the Informix installation directory
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which feature can be enabled in Informix?
A. Automatic addition of a CPU VP .
B. Automatic addition of an ADM VP .
C. Automatic extension of storage spaces.
D. Automatic addition of message log files.
Answer: C

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NO.6 When using the deployment assistant, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. A java environment must be configured.
B. The Informix user account must be used.
C. Chunks can be raw devices or buffered files.
D. The user must have connect permission to all databases.
E. The user must have connect privilege to sysadmin database.
Answer: A,E

IBM   000-619   000-619   000-619

NO.7 You need to create a new role for users on stores database. Which system catalog table can
be checked to ensure the uniqueness of the new role name?
A. stores:sysusers
B. sysmaster:sysroles
C. sysuser:sysroleauth
D. sysmaster:sysusers
Answer: A

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NO.8 Several operating-system kernel configuration parameters can affect the use of shared
memory by the database server. Which two kernel parameters may need to be configured? (Choose
two.)
A. Memory page size.
B. Total number of available semaphores.
C. Lower-boundary address for shared memory.
D. Total memory presented to the operating system.
E. Maximum operating-system shared-memory segment size.
Answer: C,E

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NO.9 What is the purpose of the ifx_getMartStat() function?
A. To display status information about the data mart.
B. To display update statistics information about the data mart and its tables.
C. To display statistics about the workers and coordinators defined for the accelerator.
D. To display status information about the Informix Warehouse Accelerator and all the data marts.
Answer: A

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NO.10 When the server is in administration mode, which users are NOT allowed to connect?
A. informix
B. Members of the DBSA group
C. Members of the DBSSO group
D. Users specified by ADMIN_MODE_USERS
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which two DataBlade extensions can be automatically registered? (Choose two.)
A. Web DataBlade
B. Spatial DataBlade
C. TimeSeries DataBlade
D. Excalibur Text DataBlade
E. High Performance Loader DataBlade
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 Which ONCONFIG parameter would you use to disable the automatic creation or extension of
chunks?
A. SP_WAITTIME
B. SP_THRESHOLD
C. SP_AUTOEXPAND
D. SP_CHUNKEXTEND
Answer: C

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NO.13 Consider the following statements: DBSPACETEMP=tempdbs1,tempdbs2,tempdbs3; CREATE
DATABASE mydb WITH LOG IN datadbs1; CREATE TEMP TABLE temp1 (col1 int); Which statement is
true?
A. The temp table will be created in datadbs1.
B. The temp table will be created in root dbspace.
C. The temp table will be careated in one of the dbspaces listed in DBSPACTEMP .
D. The temp table will be created round-robin across the dbspaces in DBSPACETEMP .
Answer: B

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NO.14 In an organization, all employees are authenticated via domain wide Kerberos single sign-on.
The DBSA wants to provide access to the database server for an employee without requesting the
Operating System (OS) administrator to create a OS level user account. Which Informix feature does
the DBSA need to leverage?
A. Mapped users
B. Role based users
C. Table level access for users
D. Label based access for users
Answer: A

IBM   000-619 exam prep   000-619 original questions

NO.15 Which two tasks can be performed through an Informix Grid? (Choose two.)
A. Install Informix products.
B. Start Informix servers in a grid.
C. Copy external files to grid servers.
D. Setup replication automatically in a grid.
E. Modify replication server attributes for grid servers.
Answer: C,D

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Exam Code: HP0-M19
Exam Name: HP (HP Virtual User Generator Software)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 59 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 You want to apply Script A Run-time settings, parameters, extra files, and actions to Script B.
How can this be accomplished?
A.save Script A script as a template, then apply the template to Script B
B.export Script A settings to a .cor file, then import the settings to Script B
C.select the option to create a new Vuser script from, then, select Script A
D.copy the .ext file located in Script A main directory to Script B main directory
Correct:A

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NO.2 For debugging purposes, you would like to show a browser during replay. Where do you enable
this option?
A.General options
B.Playback options
C.Run-time settings
D.Recording options
Correct:A

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NO.3 Which section in a VuGen script is executed only one time, during Vuser initialization?
A.login
B.action
C.vuser_init
D.vuser_end
Correct:C

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NO.4 What is used, during the debugging process that will pause execution at a specific point in the
script?
A.Step button
B.Compile button
C.Execution Arrow button
D.Toggle Breakpoint button
Correct:D

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NO.5 What is the recommended Logging Run-time setting when playing back a script prior to manual
correlation?
A.Standard
B.Disable Logging
C.Extended -> Parameter Substitution
D.Extended -> Data Returned by Server
Correct:D

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NO.6 You want to emulate a call center for an airline. All representatives login in the morning, perform
their business processes, and log out at night. In one day, a representative will Create 40 flight
reservations, Modify 10 flight reservations, and Search for 20 flight reservations. A representative
cannot perform a Modify without performing a Search first. Which run logic would satisfy the load
testing goal?
A.Create - 67% Search - 16% Block0 - 17% Search Modify
B.Create - 57% Search - 29% Block0 - 14% Search Modify
C.Create - 57% Search - 29% Modify - 14%
D.Create - 67% Search - 16% Modify - 17%
Correct:A

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NO.7 You have created several new Auto Correlation rules. A new tester on your team is preparing to
record a group of scripts on the same application on his workstation. What can you do to provide
the tester with the correlation rules?
A.You do not need to do anything. Auto Correlation rules are global and are available to all testers using
the same Controller machine.
B.Under the File menu, you select Zip Operations, then export to a zip file. You have the new tester import
the file into his script.
C.The Auto Correlation rules are saved in the script main folder. You create a share so the other tester
has access to the script main folder.
D.You export the Auto Correlation rules to a .cor file, and then have the new team member import the .cor
file into his Auto Correlation rules.
Correct:D

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NO.8 You want to have your script define a different e-mail address to each user during a registration
process for an e-commerce site, using the following format: testing99999@hp.com. Your script
will execute a maximum of 50 iterations. How can this be accomplished?
A.define a file parameter, start at 1, block size per Vuser: 50, number format: testing%05d@hp.com
B.define a unique number parameter, start at 1, block size per Vuser: 50, number format:
testing%05d@hp.com
C.define a random number parameter, minimum number: 1, maximum number: 99999, number format:
testing%05d@hp.com
D.define a sequential number parameter, minimum number: 1, maximum number 999, number format:
testing%05d@hp.com
Correct:B

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NO.9 Where do you define an Auto Correlation rule?
A.Test settings
B.General options
C.Run-time settings
D.Recording options
Correct:D

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NO.10 You want to have each step in your script measured as a transaction in the Controller and not
shown in the Replay Log in VuGen. How can you accomplish this?
A.enable the automatic transaction in the Run-time settings
B.manually add transactions to each step from the Tree view
C.add a transaction to each page, using the transactions sub-task
D.select the option from the Tools menu to add transaction to each step in the Script view
Correct:A

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Exam Code: HP0-771
Exam Name: HP (Designing and Implementing HP Enterprise Backup Solutions)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which of the following steps should the administrator perform after installing Command View
ESL? (Choose two).
A.Configure host access to the library.
B.Configure SCSI IDs for each tape drive.
C.Configure encryption settings for the library.
D.Configure identification properties for each library.
E.Configure compression settings for each tape drive.
Correct:A D

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NO.2 A customer is using a MSL6060 library with four tape drives. The library is directly attached to a
server via SCSI HBAs. The library currently has no cards in the cPCI slots. The customer wishes
to share the tape library in a SAN environment. Which two hardware changes to the library will be
needed, assuming that all other components in the SAN already exist? (Choose two.)
A.The customer should connect a Fibre cable from the existing Library Controller board into a Fibre
Channel switch.
B.The customer should remove the existing Library Controller board and replace it with a Fibre Channel
Library Controller board.
C.The customer should add a Network Storage Router M2402 to the SAN and connect the tape drives to
the router.
D.The customer should add two e1200-160 Interface Controllers to the cPCI slots and connect the tape
drives to the Interface Controllers.
E.The customer should add one e2400-160 Interface Controller into a cPCI slot and connect the tape
drives to the Interface Controller.
Correct:C D

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NO.3 A customer finds that backup jobs are unsuccessful. The backup software is able to detect the
library and its tape drives. The customer stops all backup jobs and decides to update the firmware
for the MSL6060 library using Library and Tape Tools but, Library and Tape Tools is unable to start
the firmware upgrade. Which should be performed?
A.Download the latest patches for the backup software.
B.Install Library and Tape Tools on a workstation instead.
C.Verify that the Fibre Channel Interface Controller detects the library.
D.Stop the backup application services or daemons on the backup server.
Correct:D

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NO.4 The administrator is unable to verify who has an open session with Command View ESL. The
administrator needs to access the library to update the firmware. Which two actions should the
administrator take in order to upgrade the firmware? (Choose two).
A.Power cycle the library.
B.Run the CLI via a serial cable.
C.Run the CLI via telnet.
D.Power cycle the backup server.
Correct:B C

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NO.5 What two levels of library access does the advanced mode of Secure Manager allow? (Choose
two.)
A.drive
B.zone
C.library
D.backup
Correct:A C

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Exam Code: HP0-083
Exam Name: HP (OpenVMS Network Administration)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 131 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which DECnet configuration files need to be kept synchronized in an OpenVMS cluster? Select TWO.
A. NETOBJECT.DAT
B. NET$MANAGE.DAT
C. NET$SECURITY.DAT
D. NETNODE_LOCAL.DAT
E. NETPROXY.DAT/NET$PROXY.DAT
Answer: AE

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NO.2 What is a similarity between TCPIP proxy and DECnet proxy?
A. both use the same proxy database
B. both allow remote users anonymous access
C. both use AUTHORIZE to manage their database
D. both allow remote users to transparently access files
Answer: D

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NO.3 You need to present four names to an IP network. What is the minimal hardware configuration
required?
A. one server with one NIC
B. one server with four NICs
C. two servers with two NICs each
D. four servers with one NIC each
Answer: A

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NO.4 What advantage do TCP broadcast packets have over UDP broadcast packets?
A. They can be routed.
B. They are better compressed.
C. They have a shorter round trip time.
D. They implement a one to many message.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You have a system with three network adapters. How would you benefit from having two adapters on
the same subnet?
A. network connectivity failover
B. load balancing of MOP traffic
C. route two networks through OpenVMS system
D. allows the system to use one adapter for send and the other for receive
Answer: A

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NO.6 How many bits are in an IPv4 address?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
E. 64
Answer: D

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NO.7 What do you do to preserve site-specific parameter settings and commands for a specific TCPIP
service?
A. Edit SYS$SYSTARTUP:TCPIP$SYSTARTUP.COM.
B. Edit SYS$SYSTEM:TCPIP$SYSTARTUP.COM.
C. Create files of the form SYS$SYSTEM:TCPIP$service_SYSTARTUP.COM.
D. Create files of the form SYS$STARTUP:TCPIP$service_SYSTARTUP.COM.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer requires that users can establish interactive sessions across the network, but they will NOT
allow passwords to be sent in the clear. What can you use to satisfy this dual requirement?
A. RSH
B. SSH
C. RLOGIN
D. SET HOST
Answer: B

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NO.9 How many hosts can be configured using the IP network and subnet mask shown below?

NO.10 What happens if the "Retransmit Threshold" of the OSI transport is exceeded?
A. server process exits
B. connection is dropped
C. DECnet hangs
D. system shuts down
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which types of routing can you set up on an OpenVMS system? Select TWO.
A. fixed
B. static
C. flexible
D. adaptive
E. dynamic
Answer: BE

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NO.12 A user needs to run a TCP/IP application using an unprivileged account. Which port numbers are
available for this?
A. any free port above 511
B. any free port above 1023
C. any free port above 2047
D. any free port above 4095
Answer: B

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NO.13 A netstat -r command on node 16.112.138.25 displays the following information:
Routing tables
Destination Gateway Flags Refs Use Interface
Route Tree for Protocol Family 26:
Route Tree for Protocol Family 2:
default 16.112.128.1 UGS 2 94624 WE0
16.112.128 belize U 1 48405 WE0
belize belize UHL 0 0 WE0
LOCALHOST LOCALHOST UHL 49 13939757 LO0
16.10.121.2 16.112.128.3 UGHS 3 57536 WE0
Which route is used to ping node 16.3.12.47?
A. LOCALHOST
B. default
C. 16.112.128
D. 16.10.121.2
Answer: B

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NO.14 How many bits are in an IPv6 address?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 128
D. 256
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is a function of TCPIP$INETACP?
A. monitoring all pseudo devices
B. ensuring that network servers are running
C. maintaining the routing table
D. listening for and dispatching incoming connections
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which technique can you apply to connect two network segments with nodes having the same
addresses?
A. Active Directory
B. Domain Name System
C. Network Address Translation
D. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which protocol does GateD use to advertise routes?
A. ARP
B. ICMP
C. OSPF
D. ESNMP
Answer: C

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NO.18 What is a function of ICMP?
A. sharing web pages between nodes
B. translating names to addresses
C. transporting and routing information
D. sharing IP status and error information
Answer: D

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NO.19 66.96.0 255.255.255.192
A. 62
B. 64
C. 191
D. 192
E. 254
Answer: A

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10. Which network device forwards packets between IP subnets?
A. bridge
B. hub
C. switch
D. router
Answer: D

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NO.20 What is the function of the ARP protocol?
A. to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses
B. to resolve service names to port assignments
C. to ensure quality of service (QoS) for a connection
D. to determine the shortest path between two IP nodes
Answer: A

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NO.1 When conducting a site survey, which factors are critical to the deployment of 35 units of rx8640
server complexes? (Select three.)
A. electrical workload
B. helpdesk response time
C. amount of heat generated
D. equipment loading in the facility
E. fire hazard protection in the facility
Answer: ACD

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NO.2 A customer recently purchased and implemented an 8-node cluster consisting of HP Integrity rx8640
Servers running on an HP OpenVMS cluster. They are using medical applications on those systems.
Which solution should the customer consider to enhance the management of the current infrastructure?
A. Insight Power Management
B. Rapid Deployment Solution
C. HP Systems Insight Manager
D. Vulnerability and Patch Management
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer is interested in implementing the proactive performance capturing and optimization
reporting functionality within the HP Insight Control Environment (ICE) suite. Which operating systems are
supported? (Select two.)
A. Linux
B. HP-UX
C. Solaris
D. Windows
E. OpenVMS
Answer: AD

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NO.4 Which information is relevant in determining if a customer needs a business continuity solution?
A. criticality of applications
B. type of networking speed
C. type of Fibre Channel speed
D. response time on application support
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which tool contains detailed technical information about retired HP products?
A. HP PartSurfer
B. HP Product Bulletin
C. HP Product Information Tool
D. HP Performance Quick Reference Tool
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which information is relevant in determining if a customer needs a high-availability solution?
A. criticality of applications
B. type of networking speed
C. type of Fibre Channel speed
D. response time on application support
Answer: A

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NO.7 You must verify the supported connectivity between a server platform and an HP StorageWorks EVA
storage array. You must also determine if additional software or tools are needed to implement the
solution. Which resource provides this information?
A. HP Enterprise Configurator
B. HP SalesBUILDER for Windows
C. HP SAN Design Reference Guide
D. HP StorageWorks Administrator Guide
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which information is crucial when preparing a site for new HP servers and storage?
A. BTU factor, power consumption, airflow
B. BTU factor, airflow, operating system properties
C. BTU factor, Restriction of Hazardous Substances (RoHS) compliance
D. airflow, Restriction of Hazardous Substances (RoHS) compliance, operating system properties
Answer: A

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NO.9 A customer is planning to migrate their SQL database to a new server. Which information will help you
select the right server? (Select two.)
A. number of available I/O slots
B. projected growth in terms of new users
C. current system user list and installed software patches
D. plans to migrate this system to another operating system
Answer: BD

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NO.10 During a site survey, you must identify the scalability of an existing rx6600 server. What is the
maximum number of processor modules supported for the HP Integrity rx6600 Server?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which information do you need from the customer to use the HP StorageWorks Sizing Tool to size a
data protection solution?
A. total storage capacity, number of servers, and file system type
B. total storage usage, data read:write ratio, and file cache hit rate
C. server workload ratio, transactions per second (tps), and file system type
D. total backup time, percentage of data change, and storage network (SAN) performance
Answer: D

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NO.12 A customer is using an HP 9000 rp7420 Server and would like to increase system performance.
Which option is most cost effective?
A. in-box upgrade
B. scale-in upgrade
C. scale-up upgrade
D. box swap upgrade
Answer: A

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NO.13 You must verify that the existing data center power and cooling can support 15 units of fully populated,
c7000 enclosures. Which resource provides information about heat-generated air flow and power
requirements for the enclosures?
A. ActiveAnswers
B. BladeSystem Sizer
C. StorageWorks Sizer
D. SalesBUILDER for Windows
Answer: B

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NO.14 A customer is planning to migrate their SQL database to a new server. Which information will help you
select the right server? (Select two.)
A. current system power utilization
B. projected growth in terms of new users
C. current user workload and transactions per second
D. current system user list and installed software patches
Answer: BC

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NO.15 You are evaluating whether a customer's infrastructure can benefit from consolidating on an HP
BladeSystem c-Class with Insight Control Environment management. Which customer requirements
would indicate this? (Select three.)
A. high-volume deployment
B. power and cooling limitations
C. single server point management
D. support for dynamic RAID memory protection
E. quick redeployment through rip-and-replace technology
Answer: ABE

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NO.16 Which resource can be used to plan and configure HP servers and HP storage in a data center?
A. StorageWorks Sizer
B. SalesBUILDER for Windows
C. Performance Quick Reference Tool
D. HP 9000 and HP Integrity Ordering Guide
Answer: B

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NO.17 What is the maximum number of hard partitions (nPars) supported for an HP Integrity rx7640 Server
configuration?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is the maximum number of hard partitions (nPars) supported for an HP Integrity rx8640 Server
configuration?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: B

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NO.19 When conducting a site survey, which factors are critical to the deployment of several hundred c-Class
enclosures? (Select two.)
A. electrical workload
B. shipments to the facility
C. helpdesk response time
D. amount of heat generated
E. fire hazard protection in the facility
Answer: AD

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NO.20 A customer recently purchased and implemented an 8-node cluster consisting of HP Integrity rx8640
Servers running HP-UX 11i v3 and HP Serviceguard. They are using an Oracle 10g and SAP solution on
those systems. Which solution should the customer consider to enhance the current infrastructure?
A. Virtual Server Environment
B. Insight Power Management
C. Rapid Deployment Solution
D. Vulnerability and Patch Management
Answer: A

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