2013年9月30日星期一

HP certification HP2-E13 exam targeted exercises

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Exam Code: HP2-E13
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Enterprise Solutions)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 82 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 CORRECT TEXT
What is the primary reason that drives customers to implement IT Consolidation solutions?
Answer: the need to increase IT staff

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Answer: the need to increase the entire supply chain

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Answer: the need to increase security and dependence on IT

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Answer: the need to control diverse environments while reducing IT costs

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Answer: Pending

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NO.2 How can StorageWorks MSL tape libraries extend the benefits of tape? (Select two.)
A. lowering the initial cost for tape solutions
B. automating the process of backup and restore for one or more servers
C. increasing the capacity of data that can be backed up without intervention
D. reducing the number of tapes required for backup of same amount of data
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 CORRECT TEXT
How does HP define IT Consolidation solutions?
Answer: as a one-time-only project
Answer: by downsizing the number of systems in the data center

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Answer: as a process that affects only servers, storage, and databases *
Answer: using proven strategies for streamlining inefficient infrastructures

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Answer: Pending

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NO.4 CORRECT TEXT
HP works with many solution providers to integrate innovation into solutions. Which partner helps
ensure the latest in microprocessor technology?
Answer: AMD

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Answer: Lotus

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Answer: Citri

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Answer: Red Hat

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Answer: Microsoft

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Answer: Pending

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NO.5 CORRECT TEXT
A customer has excess IT hardware they believe has remaining market value. They may wish to
acquire new HP technology or apply any remaining market value proceeds to other HP products or
services. Which HP program might you consider? (Select two.)
Answer: HP Trade-In Program
Answer: HP Care Pack Services

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Answer: HP Managed Care Services

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Answer: HPFS Asset Recovery Services

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Answer: Pending

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NO.6 CORRECT TEXT
Which statement is true regarding the dual-core Itanium 2 processor? (Select two.)
Answer: It supports more cores per processor than competing offerings.
Answer: It supports massively parallel processing for increased performance.
Answer: It provides increased multitasking performance while using less power.
Answer: It features dual-core spare architecture, which allows for online CPU spare.
Answer: Pending

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NO.7 CORRECT TEXT
During a BladeSystem sales process, you communicate the benefits of migrating to HP
BladeSystem architecture. Which benefits should you emphasize? (Select two.)
Answer: Blades require less infrastructure management.
Answer: Blades use less power for reduced cooling costs.
Answer: Blades support plug-and-play replacement for easy maintenance.
Answer: A blade deployment is less expensive than a traditional server deployment.
Answer: Pending

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NO.8 .According to the current HP roadmap, which HP servers are based on industry-standard
processors? (Select three.)
A. HP 9000 servers
B. HP Integrity servers
C. HP ProLiant servers
D. HP AlphaServer systems
E. HP Integrity NonStop servers
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.9 CORRECT TEXT
Which statement is true regarding the new world of business technology? (Select two.)
Answer: IT is seen as separate from the business itself.
Answer: It reduces the cost of IT while improving business performance.
Answer: Technology does not support the business; it powers the business.
Answer: IT is focused on data processing and management information systems.
Answer: Pending

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NO.10 Which action is needed to solve the problem described below?
High costs due to multiple server locations and underutilized IT facilities.
A. control
B. continuity
C. compliance
D. collaboration
E. consolidation
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-Z09
Exam Name: HP (TippingPoint Advanced Technical Security Products)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 76 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is the serial console speed of an IPS?
A. 9600
B. 19200
C. 115,200
D. user configurable
Answer: C

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NO.2 How can the TippingPoint Threat Management Center (TMC) be accessed? (Select three.)
A. directly by your SMS, if your SMS has a valid TMC username/password
B. by anyone with a browser and valid TMC username/password
C. using an FTP client
D. directly by your IPS
E. directly by your SMS, as your SMS does not need a TMC username/password
Answer: B, D, E

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NO.3 Jack, Kevin, and Louise are responsible for various administrative functions on the TippingPoint
solution. Louise is the manager of the group and is defined on the SMS as a super-user. Jack and Kevin
are both defined as administrators. Jack is responsible for network operations and uptime, and Kevin is
responsible for security policy.
Which permissions should you grant? (Select two.)
A. Jack should only be granted permissions for the IPS devices.
B. Louise should be granted permissions to all segment groups, devices, and profiles.
C. Kevin should be granted permissions for the IPS devices.
D. Kevin should only be granted permissions to the appropriate profiles and segment groups.
Answer: A, D

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NO.4 What does the Threat Management Center (TMC) allow you to do? (Select three.)
A. Download TOS images.
B. Access knowledgebase articles.
C. Remotely log in to your IPS.
D. Download Digital Vaccines.
E. Download custom Digital Vaccines.
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.5 By default, what is an IPS single super-user called?
A. By default, the single super-user is called root.
B. By default, the single super-user is called SuperUser.
C. By default, the single super-user is called admin.
D. There is no default user.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A security administrator at a university has been tasked with identifying the TippingPoint IPS that would
best meet the university's needs. The university has a complex network, with a mixture of both fiber and
copper wiring. IPS protection must be provided for three copper segments and two fiber segments. The
aggregate bandwidth (with expansion capacity) is not expected to exceed 3Gbps over the next four years.
Which TippingPoint IPS solution should the security administrator recommend?
A. 2 TippingPoint 330s and 1 TippingPoint 600E
B. TippingPoint 5000E or TippingPoint 5100N
C. TippingPoint SMS
D. TippingPoint 5100N only
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which statements about the Digital Vaccine are true.? (Select three.)
A. Installing a new Digital Vaccine will reboot the IPS.
B. Some filters have a Recommended setting of Disabled.
C. Some filters have a Recommended setting of Enabled.
D. Digital Vaccines can be automatically down loaded and installed on the IPS.
E. New Digital Vaccines are released at 2 p.m. EST.
Answer: B, D, E

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NO.8 Multiple user accounts can be created on an IPS device. Each can be assigned to one of three roles:
super-user, administrator, or operator. Which statements are true about these roles? (Select two.)
A. An administrator can reset the audit log.
B. A super-user can create new accounts and edit existing account passwords.
C. An operator is a view-only role.
D. Only the super-user can reboot an IPS.
Answer: B, C

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NO.9 A security administrator for a TippingPoint IPS suspects that an employee has logged into the IPS and
altered its configuration. How can the security administrator analyze and undo all of the unauthorized
changes?
A. by reviewing the IPS system log, searching for filter hits from the employee
B. by reviewing the IPS audit log, filtering by the employee ¯ s use r na m e and / o r I P add r es
C. by reviewing the configuration changes listed in the IPS alert log
D. by reviewing the IPS block log (the employee would have been blocked)
Answer: B

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NO.10 An IPS can be managed and unmanaged from the SMS. How can you unmanage an IPS? (Select two.)
A. from the SMS Web interface
B. from the SMS client
C. from the IPS LSM Web interface
D. from the IPS CLI using conf t sms disable
Answer: B, C

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Exam Code: HP0-P14
Exam Name: HP (Planning & Design of HP Integrity)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 122 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 In which environments can resource partitions be used according to HP best practices? (Select two.)
A. Integrity Virtual Machines (VMs)
B. processor sets (psets)
C. hard partitions (nPars)
D. virtual partitions (vPars)
E. service level objectives (SLOs)
Answer: CD

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NO.2 How does HP Integrated Lights-Out 3 (iLO 3) benefit an Integrity server system?
A. It increases operating system reliability.
B. It permits communication between cells of a cell-based system.
C. It increases security by encrypting traffic over the Intelligent Platform Management Interface (IPMI).
D. It enables system management when the operating system is not booted.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which new features are available with Secure Resource Partitioning (SRP) 2.1? (Select two.)
A. management GUI that is integrated with SMH and HP SIM
B. integration of Serviceguard packages into the SRP environment
C. single administration domain per system
D. expanded local administration
E. cloning and migration of secure resource partitions between systems
Answer: BE

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NO.4 Which HP Partitioning Continuum feature is available for an Integrity cell-based system in a Windows
Server 2008 environment?
A. hard partitions (nPars)
B. logical partitions
C. VMware Virtual Machines
D. Secure Resource Partitions
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which virtualization solution is available on Integrity mid-range servers, but not entry-level servers?
A. Integrity Virtual Machines (VM)
B. hard partitions within a node
C. HP-UX processor sets (psets)
D. Process Resource Manager (PRM)
Answer: B

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
Which HP Integrity server blade is shown in the exhibit?
A. Integrity BL860c
B. Integrity BL870c
C. Integrity BL870c i2
D. Integrity BL890c i2
Answer: D

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NO.7 To simplify storage management for an HP Integrity rx2660 customer with limited system administration
staff, you design a SAN solution that automates repetitive array processes. On which HP StorageWorks
disk array system should you base your design?
A. EFS Clustered Gateway
B. EVA4400
C. MSA2000i
D. XP24000
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which statements are true about memory in cell-based Integrity systems? (Select two.)
A. Memory modules of different sizes can be mixed in the same cell.
B. Cell local memory can be configured as a percentage of memory.
C. Cell local memory is faster than interleaved memory for providing access to memory on other cells in
the system.
D. Memory must be installed in dual quads of the same size memory modules.
E. Cell-based systems require cell local memory.
Answer: AB

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NO.9 Which feature keeps a system running in spite of a multi-bit DRAM error?
A. memory scrubbing technology
B. address control parity
C. chip spare?like memory protection
D. dynamic page deallocation
Answer: C

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NO.10 Core-to-core and core-to-I/O hub communication enables scalability in large multiprocessor systems
and increases capacity for I/O-intensive applications, such as transactional enterprise databases.
Which feature of Itanium processor 9300 series quad-core processors accelerates this capability?
A. Intel Scalable Memory Interconnect
B. Intel QuickPath Technology
C. Intel 7500 Scalable Memory Buffer
D. Intel Turbo Boost Technology
Answer: B

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NO.11 Your customer has asked you how HP virtual partitions compare with IBM virtual partitions.What can
you tell the customer about the problems IBM has with its virtual partitions.?
A. With IBM Virtual I/O (VIO), I/O partitions constitute a single point of failure.
B. AIX and POWER blades do not support virtual partitions.
C. IBM servers cannot manage virtual partitions and hard partitions with the same management software.
D. IBM partitioning dedicates I/O to each virtual partition, which results in slower I/O performance.
Answer: A

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NO.12 What are the differences between Integrity Virtual Machine (VM) and virtual partitions? (Select two.)
A. Integrity VM assigns processor resources to workloads according to service level objectives.
B. Integrity VM can run multiple operating system types and versions.
C. Virtual partitions use dedicated hardware, Integrity VM does not.
D. Virtual partitions can share memory and I/O resources between kernels.
E. Virtual partitions allow resources to be assigned down to 5% of a processor.
Answer: BC

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NO.13 Your customer wants to purchase the newest Integrity servers that support Red Hat Enterprise Linux
or SuSE Linux Enterprise Server operating systems. Which Integrity servers should you recommend?
(Select two.)
A. Integrity BL860c
B. Integrity BL870c
C. Integrity BL870c i2
D. Integrity BL890c i2
Answer: AB

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NO.14 Which function does Integrated Lights-Out 2 (iLO 2) perform on Integrity rx8640 and rx7640 servers?
A. deallocates the processor and memory during a failure
B. initializes system LAN and SAN hardware
C. manages online replace/add/delete
D. reports system status
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which functions are available through the Extensible Firmware Interface (EFI)? (Select two.)
A. controlling and managing the power utilization
B. configuring HP Integrated Lights-Out 3 (iLO 3) access
C. maintaining boot options
D. resetting the management processor to factory default
E. installing an operating system
Answer: CE

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NO.16 The Itanium processor 9300 series delivers higher performance at peak workloads by increasing
voltage and frequencies beyond rated values without exceeding the processors thermal design power
envelope.
Which Itanium processor 9300 series feature delivers this capability?
A. event-switched Hyper-Threading
B. demand-based switching
C. Intel QuickPath Technology
D. Intel Turbo Boost Technology
Answer: D

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NO.17 Your customer is considering replacing their mainframe with Integrity BL890c i2 server blades and
consolidating large data warehousing databases and applications.
Which operating system would best fit this customers need?
A. Windows
B. Linux
C. HP-UX
D. OpenVMS
Answer: C

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NO.18 You are planning a BladeSystem solution for a customer who wants to populate a c7000 enclosure with
one Integrity BL860c server blade and one BL870c server blade. The customer also wants one SB600c
storage blade, and one StorageWorks Ultrium tape blade to provide direct attach tape backup capability
for the BL860c.
What must you remember when designing this configuration?
A. The tape blade must be adjacent to the BL860c server blade in the enclosure.
B. You must connect the SB600c storage blade and the Ultrium tape blade to the same server blade.
C. HP Data Protector Express Single Server Edition must be purchased separately.
D. You must install a PCIe Mezzanine Pass-Thru Card for HP BladeSystem c-Class to connect the
storage blade to the BL870c server blade.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which applications will benefit most from porting from 32-bit to Itanium 64-bit processors? (Select two.)
A. web services
B. floating point calculations
C. very large databases
D. online transaction processing
E. mission-critical applications
Answer: BC

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NO.20 Which features are new with Integrity rx2800 i2 servers? (Select two.)
A. Intel Itanium 9300 series quad-core processors
B. 128GB of memory maximum
C. iLO 3 management processors
D. eight internal 2.5?SFF hot-plug disk drives maximum
E. eight DIMM slots
Answer: AC

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Exam Code: HP0-J44
Exam Name: HP (Advanced SAN Architecture)
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What are the primary responsibilities of the SAN architect? (Select three.)
A. Ensuring data availability
B. Solving revision conflicts
C. Solving management problems
D. Ensuring data protection
E. Solving SAN scalability issues
F. Ensuring database consistency or validity
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.2 While designing the SAN to meet your customer's throughput requirements, you need to configure
several 4Gb/s B-Series SAN switches with inter-switch links. What is the maximum throughput available
using a trunk group between 2 switches?
A. 8Gb/s
B. 16Gb/s
C. 32Gb/s
D. 64Gb/s
Answer: C

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NO.3 When considering a proof of concept model for a customer with a Customer Relation Database (CRM)
environment requiring high bandwidth, which size do you expect for the majority of I/O requests?
A. less than 8K
B. less than 100k
C. greater than 1MB
D. greater than 100k
Answer: D

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NO.4 Continuous Access XP software products allow host-independent, real-time, remote data mirroring
between XP disk arrays. If you are designing a solution that requires no performance impact on the host
application, but the link between sites is not necessarily highly available, what is the best choice?
A. CA for XP Sync
B. CA for XPAsync
C. CA for XP Journal
D. CA for XP Link Extension
Answer: C

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NO.5 When considering the cabling of a new SAN environment with 8Gb/s switches, what is the maximum
distance per cable segment using OM2 fiber optic cables?
A. 50 meters
B. 150 meters
C. 380 meters
D. 500 meters
Answer: A

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NO.6 During a SAN switch assessment on a B-series switch, a SAN architect notices that the switch is
partitioned in a set of logical switches. What is the name of this feature?
A. Inter VSAN Routing
B. Transparent Routing
C. Virtual Fabric
D. VSAN
Answer: C

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NO.7 What must you consider before you merge an old fabric with a new SAN implementation?
A. Active array controller ports must be taken offline to allow both fabrics to merge.
B. Zone configurations must be disabled on the existing fabrics.
C. New switches must be set to the same domain ID as the existing switches.
D. Each switch in the merged fabric must have a unique domain ID.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which blocksize should you choose for a profile requiring performance-critical random access
applications?
A. 2,048 bytes.
B. 4,096 bytes
C. 8,192 bytes
D. 16,384 bytes
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which HP tool can be used to validate the integrity of your customer's current SAN environment prior to
a SAN upgrade?
A. HPStorageWorks SAN Validation
B. HPStorageWorks SAN Sizer
C. HPStorageWorks SAN Designer
D. HPStorageWorks Essentials SAN Visibility
Answer: D

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NO.10 When designing a solution for a customer, there are different ways of looking at or viewing the SAN
architecture that is part of that solution. What are two of the four SAN architecture views? (Select two.)
A. Business view
B. SAN functional view
C. Storage centric view
D. Stakeholder view
E. SAN switch view
Answer: A,B

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NO.1 You are meeting with a customer who has complained about their very limited budget for the networking
infrastructure. What can you say to demonstrate that HP offers the best choice for them?
A.HP offers a broad networking portfolio with products that are recognized as the least expensive,
minimizing the networking investment.
B. HP networking solutions are designed to minimize "on-going" costs (OPEX), allowing them to shift the
budget toward investment (CAPEX).
C. HP networking solutions are designed to minimize networking investment (CAPEX), allowing them to
shift the budget toward maintaining the network (OPEX).
D. HP provides financial services that will solve the current budget issues.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Why are voice applications called "performance sensitive"?
A.The user of a voice application notices the slightest delay.
B. Voice devices require more power than standard workstations.
C. Voice traffic requires high bandwidth.
D. The traffic for voice applications requires greater protection from threats than data applications.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are creating a networking solution proposal for a university. Which question helps you determine if
the network infrastructure must support traffic prioritization?
A.Does network access need to be available in older classroom buildings?
B. Does the university need to comply with any regulations and if so, do you need to prove compliance?
C. Do you plan to enhance the learning experience with interactive virtual classrooms?
D. Do faculty members need access to more resources than students (i.e., answer keys)?
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are proposing an HP solution to a customer who has often complained about the expense of
network upgrades. What information can you provide the customer to address these concerns and
demonstrate that an HP solution is the best choice for the company?
A.Because the HP networking portfolio features proprietary technologies, these solutions are more
reliable than those offered by competitors.
B. The HP commitment to high-quality core devices eliminates costly upgrades for every edge device.
C. HP offers a standard trade-in program to replace end-of-life networking devices.
D. HP is committed to open standards, which ensures that its solutions remain valid in the future.
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer has asked you why it is worthwhile to invest in intelligence at the network edge. Which
statements accurately describe the benefits of doing so.? (Select two.)
A.The network is scalable. The core is not overloaded when the edge is expanded.
B. Only the network edge is open-standards compliant and future-proof.
C. The network edge provides everything required for an advanced access control solution.
D. The network edge provides features that HP Security solutions can leverage.
E. The HP network edge devices are protected by the HP Lifetime Warranty, but the core switches are
not.
Answer: B,E

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Exam Code: HP0-M33
Exam Name: HP (HP Operations Orchestration 9.x Software)
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Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is a flow?
A. a logically linked sequence of steps associated with operations
B. a running step
C. a sequence of commands
D. a sequence of operations communicating with the RAS server
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which criteria can be used to filter Run history reports?
A. run ID
B. variables
C. outputs
D. user
Answer: D

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NO.3 What happens when you double-click on a step?
A. The sub-flow opens.
B. The operation opens.
C. The stepdebuggger opens.
D. The step inspector opens.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What are valid out-of-the-box operations you can create in Studio? (Select two.)
A. Web Service
B. Cmd
C. RAS Operation Monitor
D. Flow Run Summary Report
E. Rsh
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Where can you create a flow inside Studio?
A. library folder
B. configuration folder
C. integrations folder
D. operations folder
Answer: A

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NO.6 Where is the target repository set?
A. Welcome screen in Studio
B. Repository menu in Studio
C. Flow Library tab in Central.
D. My Changes/Checkouts in Studio
Answer: B

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NO.7 When adding a filter to an operation, the Select Filter dialog box opens. This dialog box includes a drop
down menu with several types of filters that can be added to an operation. Some of these filters are
language specific. Which language has specific filters included in this drop down list?
A. XML
B. HTML
C. Perl
D. VBscript
Answer: D

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NO.8 Operations in some Library sections may not be modified in their original location and must be copied
into a different location before they can be modified. Which icon indicates this behavior?
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
Answer: A

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NO.9 Where does a flow author work with outputs?
A. library pane
B. operation properties window
C. debug tool
D. step inspector window
Answer: B

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NO.10 Where is the debug tool located?
A. Tools menu in Studio
B. Flow authoring toolbar in Studio
C. Administration tab in Central
D. Flow library tab in Central
Answer: B

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NO.11 How do you create documentation for multiple objects?
A. Compile a list of objects in the Create Documentation tool.
B. Select the folder that contains all the objects when creating the documentation.
C. Use a custom template from the <OO_HOME>/Studio/extra/template directory.
D. Combine the documentation files for each object into one folder.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Where is the callout function located in Studio?
A. step palette
B. Library/Operations
C. Library/Utility Operations
D. debug window
Answer: A

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NO.13 Where are view options found in Studio?
A. menu bar
B. Edit menu
C. flow authoring tool bar
D. Tools menu
Answer: C

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NO.14 A flow has a grey background in the design panel. What does this indicate?
A. It is checked into Central.
B. It is checked out of Central.
C. It is an old version.
D. It has been changed and the changes have not been saved.
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is the default file type when generating documentation?
A. HTML
B. XML
C. PPT
D. PDF
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-Y36
Exam Name: HP (Deploying HP Enterprise Networks)
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Total Q&A: 73 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 In the configuration of a Martini version L2VPN on two PE routers, which parameter must be identical?
A. S-VID
B. PW-ID
C. VLAN-ID
D. Service Instance number
E. VPN-Target
F. Remote LDP Peer IP address
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which parameters must be configured on two PE routers to provision an Ethernet L2VPN in Martini
mode? (Select four.)
A. PW-ID
B. LDP Remote Peer
C. VPN Instance
D. Service Instance
E. S-VID
F. L2VPN Address Family
G. Route Distinguisher
H. IP Binding
Answer: A,B,D,E

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
A provider of MPLS services configures MPLS Layer-3 VPN services for two customers. Each customer
has three branch offices that will be interconnected. The address blocks chosen by the customers for
each site are:
The provider has established only four Multi-Protocol BGP peers as shown in the exhibit. PE-4 has no
customer connections. Neither MPLS L3VPN is functional. Which configuration steps are required if this
topology is to be operational for both customers.? (Select two.)
A. Create VPN instances Customer A and Customer B on PE-4.
B. Configure PE-4 as a route-reflector within the bgp l3vpn-family.
C. Configure PE-4 as a route-reflector within the ipv4-family vpnv4.
D. Configure PE-4 as a route-reflector within the ipv4-family vpn-instance Cust-A and vpn-instance
Customer B.
E. Configure PE-4 as a bgp route-reflector.
F. Configure MBGP peers for P-10, P-20, and P-30.
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
A provider of MPLS services offers multiple types of MPLS-based VPNs to its customers. Provider Edge
router PE-1 directly connects to the following three customers:
What is the minimum number of LDP peers established on Router PE-1?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: B

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NO.5 What can be included in BGP or multi-protocol BGP Network Layer Reachability Information (NLRI)?
(Select three.)
A. AS 65001
B. 10.0.0.0 /9
C. MED
D. Remote LDP Session
E. BGP ORF
F. VPN Target
G. VPLS Label Block
H. 6500:301:192.168.0.0 /16
Answer: B,G,H

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NO.6 Which characteristics of a Circuit Cross Connect (CCC) L2VPN distinguish it from the Martini or
Kompella versions? (Select two.)
A. It requires a stack of three MPLS labels.
B. It includes exactly two endpoints of the VPN.
C. It can operate with fewer than two MPLS labels.
D. It does not require any Label signaling.
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
A provider of MPLS services configures MPLS Layer-3 VPN services for two customers. Each customer
has three branch offices that will be interconnected. The address blocks chosen by the customers for
each site are:
The provider uses OSPF as its IGP with the Loopback 0 addresses shown as the OSPF router-id and the
MPLS LSR-ID. Customer A Site 1 successfully pings Customer A Site 2. This ICMP echo request is
captured on the Ethernet segment between routers P-10 and P-20. What is found on this packet capture?
(Select two.)
A. MPLS VPN label
B. VPN target
C. MPLS outer label corresponding to the LSR-ID of P-20
D. MPLS outer label corresponding to FEC 16.0.0.2
E. route distinguisher
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 Which technology in an MPLS L2VPN can provide ordered delivery of Ethernet frames?
A. TCP-based L2VPN
B. Control Word
C. Ethernet raw access circuit
D. VLAN pseudowire class
E. MPLS EXP bits
Answer: B

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
Router-1 and Router-2 are BGP peers. Router-2 and Router-3 are BGP peers. However, Router-3 has not
learned the 16.0.0.0/8 BGP route. How can you resolve this issue? (Select two.)
A. Enable IGP synchronization on all routers.
B. Prepend AS1 to the 16.0.0.0/8 route on Router-1.
C. Enable BGP peering between Router-1 and Router-3.
D. Adjust the local preference of 16.0.0.0/8 on Router-1.
E. Configure Router-2 as a route reflector and Router-1 and Router-3 as clients.
F. Establish a physical link between Router-1 and Router-3.
Answer: C,E

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NO.10 Which BGP attributes must be present in a BGP routing update? (Select three.)
A. community
B. MED
C. origin type
D. local preference
E. AS path
F. next hop
Answer: C,E,F

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Exam Name: HP (Large Format Technical Fundamentals)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which statement is true about the features of the HP Designjet 111 with Tray printer.?
A. It is an A1 roll-fed printer.
B. It is a network-ready four-color printer with excellent line printing capabilities.
C. It is a six-color printer used for excellent graphic-quality printing.
D. It is a four-color sheet-fed printer with an optional roll feed.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What does the HP Designjet Z6100, 60-inch (152cm) model include?
A. a media basket and a take-up reel as standard
B. a take-up reel only as standard
C. a media basket only as standard
D. both dye and UV ink systems as standard
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which HP Designjet printers load roll-fed media from the rear? (Select two.)
A. 111 with Roll
B. 4020
C. HD Scanner
D. T1120SD-MFP
E. Z6100ps
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Which spot color system is most widely known?
A. HSK
B. Pantone
C. sRGB
D. RAL
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which optional connectivity solution is a feature of the HP Designjet 4X20 series?
A. Firewire
B. Embedded Gigabit Ethernet
C. Parallel
D. Jetdirect print servers
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-B76
Exam Name: HP (HP Imaging and Printing Technical Fundamentals)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 59 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is the most time consuming part of the laser printing electronic process?
A. I/O process
B. PS process
C. PCL process
D. page rendering
Answer: D

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NO.2 A graphic arts business is creating images for printing on an offset press. The business is using an HP
Pinter for printing the final proofs. EPS files are often sent to the business to be included in the images
Printed.
Which driver should be used?
A. PCL6
B. PCL5
C. PCL5e
D. PostScript
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which printer driver language uses HPGL commands while printing a bounding box?
A. PCL5
B. PostScript
C. PCL3
D. PCL6
Answer: B

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NO.4 How do you print a job using the Stored Job option?
A. use the driver selection for printing stored jobs
B. use HP Web Jetadmin
C. use the user name you selected on the control panel to view the Stored Job option
D. use the control panel to select the stored job for printing
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the purpose of the Quick Copy feature?
A. to allow the image to be viewed on the PC prior to printing
B. to allow the job to be printed on multiple printers simultaneously
C. to allow the user to verify output prior to printing all copies
D. to allow additional copies to be made at the printer without resending the printing job
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which HP technology enhances printer performance and minimizes network traffic?
A. RIP first/transmit later
B. sends once / RIP once
C. transmits once / RIP once
D. transmit once/RIP triple
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which feature from Job Retention do you use to make prints, without wasting paper through document
errors'?
A. Quick Copy
B. Stored Job
C. Secure Printing
D. Proof and Hold
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is an advantage of PCL 6 over PCL 5c?
A. PCL 6 supports color printing and PCL 5c does not.
B. PCL 6 is compatible with all PCL printers and PCL 5c is not
C. PCL 6 can use object-based commands instead of only HPGL commands.
D. PCL 6 has improved paper handling functions
Answer: C

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NO.9 Prescribe is a common language of which vendor?
A. IBM
B. HP
C. Adobe
D. Kyocera
Answer: D

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NO.10 What happens after a Proof and Hold job is sent to an HP Color LaserJet.?
A. It remains on the hard disk until the printer is switched off.
B. It remains on the hard disk, even when the printer is switched off.
C. It remains in the memory of the printer.
D. it is deleted from the printer.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-E42
Exam Name: HP (HP Visual Collaboration Technical)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 51 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 From the Database Maintenance tab, you are unable to do what?
A. back up and restore the database
B. upload a previously saved copy of the database
C. upgrade the database
D. delete the current database
Answer: A

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NO.2 How do you access the Portal Maintenance page.?
A. from the Portal Server Shell account
B. from the Manager Admin page, by selecting the Settings tab and then Maintenance
C. from the Portal Super Admin account, by selecting the Settings tab and then Maintenance
D. from the Portal Admin account, by selecting the Settings tab and then Maintenance
Answer: B

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NO.3 What do network settings in the Desktop configuration determine?
A. which servers, ports and proxies the Router will use when connecting to meetings
B. which servers, ports and proxies the Gateway will use when connecting to meetings
C. which servers, ports and proxies the Desktop will use when connecting to meetings
D. which bandwidth the servers, ports and proxies will use when connecting to meetings
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which Visual Collaboration product can deliver HD720p60/1080p30?
A. Visual Collaboration Desktop
B. Visual Collaboration Room 220
C. Visual Collaboration Portal and Gateway
D. Visual Collaboration Room 100
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statements are true about the Management Portal? (Select two.)
A. It administers all devices and user accounts.
B. It is the primary Media Router and hosts the layer routing, databases and administration applications.
C. It provides up to 100 ports for connections and can be expanded as necessary.
D. It provides web proxy functionality, enabling web browsers usage for general web access.
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Which function does the HPVC Router perform?
A. system administration and component management
B. efficient transport of A/V streams
C. trans-coding to legacy systems
D. phone bridging to the corporate telephone system
Answer: C

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NO.7 How do you access the Portal Maintenance page?
A. from the Portal Server Shell account
B. from the Manager Admin page, by selecting the Settings tab and then Maintenance
C. from the Portal Super Admin account, by selecting the Settings tab and then Maintenance
D. from the Portal Admin account, by selecting the Settings tab and then Maintenance
Answer: D

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NO.8 For the Visual Collaboration Manager configuration, where should you make network changes?
A. from the Visual Collaboration Manager configuration page
B. directly on the Portal server from the shell menu
C. from the Portal Management page
D. from the Visual Collaboration Management admin panel
Answer: B

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NO.9 Before deploying the H.323 Gateway, what must you do first?
A. Add a Gateway account using the Admin page on the Portal.
B. Add a Gateway component using the Super account on the Portal.
C. Add a Gateway license using the Super account on the Portal.
D. Add a Gateway component using the Admin account on the Portal.
Answer: D

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NO.10 What should you do when you cannot resolve an issue?
A. Attempt to format and recover the user s operating system.
B. Generate a Diagnostics report (zip file) and forward to the next level of support analyst.
C. Attempt to un-install and re-install the software.
D. Attempt to replace suspected faulty hardware.
Answer: A

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