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Exam Code: ISEBSWTINT-001

Exam Name: ISEB (ISEB Software Testing Intermediate)

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Exam Code: II0-001

Exam Name: IISFA (Certified Information Forensics Investigator(CIFI))

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NO.1 .Social engineer is legal in the United States, Great Britain, Canada, and Australia as
long as the social engineer does not:
A. Attempt to extract corporate secrets
B. Lie
C. Apply the Frye Scenario
D. Live outside those countries
Answer: A

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NO.2 Firewalls are an excellent source of:
A. Details of system usage
B. Details of protocol usage
C. Forensic Evidence for malicious attacks
D. Port/service mappings
Answer: C

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NO.3 .Which of the following are characteristics of electronic Evidence?
A. Cannot be easily altered
B. Is not time sensitive
C. Should follow proper chain of custody
D. Must be decrypted
Answer: C

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NO.4 .In selecting Forensic tools for collecting evidence in the investigation of a crime the
standard for authenticating computer records is:
A. The same for authenticating other records. The degree of authentication does not
vary simply because a record happens to be (or has been at one point) in electronic
form.
B. Much more complex, and requires an expert to be present at each step of the process.
C. To convert the technical terms & definitions into a basic understandable language to
be presented as evidence.
D. To ensure the tools are equipped with logging to document the steps of evidence
collection.
Answer: C

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NO.5 .A new protocol that is designed to aid in intrusion protection and IP tracebacks is
known as:
A. Intruder Detection and Isolation Protocol (IDIP)
B. Intrusion Detection and Traceback Protocol (IDTP)
C. Facilitating Traceback Protocol (FTP)
D. Intruder Detection and Internet Protocol (IDIP)
Answer: A

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NO.6 .In normal operation, a host receiving packets can determine their source by direct
examination of the source address field in the:
A. The IP packet header
B. Source code
C. Audit logs
D. Intrusion Detection System
Answer: A

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NO.7 .One caution an investigator should take when examining the source of a network
attack is:
A. an occurrence of Social Engineering
B. relaxed physical security
C. the source IP address may have been spoofed
D. a sniffer could be on the network
Answer: C

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NO.8 .The 1st amendment allows hackers to exercise free speech by altering content on
websites to express opposing viewpoints.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.9 .Stream comparison used as a Traceback technique focuses on what two factors?
A. the IP address and victim port
B. the packet contents and audit logs
C. inter-packet timing and the victim port
D. the packet contents and inter-packet timing
Answer: D

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NO.10 .The major disadvantage to techniques that attempt to mark IP packets as they move
through the internet is:
A. A decrease in network efficiency
B. An increase in the packet load
C. An increase in bandwidth consumption
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.11 .All of the following are methods of auditing except:
A. Internal audit
B. External audit
C. Thorough audit
D. 3rd party audit
Answer: C

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NO.12 Drive geometry refers to
A. The algorithms used to computer a specific location of a particular segment.
B. The functional dimensions of a drive in terms of the number of heads, cylinders, and
sectors per track.
C. Physical dimensions of the drive platters.
D. The depth of the pits on optical media or magnetic field charge on magnetic media
Answer: B

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NO.13 .What technique of layered security design will allow for both investigation and
recovery after an incident?
A. RI Technology
B. Highly available systems
C. Overlap design approach
D. Honeypot placement
Answer: B

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NO.14 ."Interesting data" is:
A. Data relevant to your investigation
B. Pornography
C. Documents, spreadsheets, and databases
D. Schematics or other economic based information
Answer: A

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NO.15 .Embedding a serial number or watermark into a data file is known as:
A. Hashing
B. Steganography
C. Message Digest
D. Imprinting
Answer: B

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NO.16 .What is the difference between a zombie host and a reflector host?
A. Unlike a zombie, a reflector is a laundering host that fundamentally transforms
and/or delays the attacker's communications before they continue down the attack
path. (Zombie technique)
B. Unlike a zombie, a Traceback through the stepping stone host requires determining if
two communications streams, viewed at different points in the network, have the
same origin and are essentially the same stream. (stepping stone Traceback
technique)
C. Unlike a zombie host, the reflector is an uncompromised host that cooperates with
the attack in an innocent manner consistent with its normal function.
D. A zombie is a version of a reflector host.
Answer: C

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NO.17 .To perform a successful traceback, the two most prominent problems that need to
be solved are locating the source of IP packets and:
A. the timestamp of the event
B. determining the first node of a connection chain
C. the reflector host
D. the victim port
Answer: B

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NO.18 .If a CIFI violates the ISFA code of Ethics, her CIFI certification can be immediately
revoked.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.19 .The most important network information that should be observed from the logs
during a Traceback is the intruder IP address, the victim IP address, the victim
port, protocol information and the:
A. source port
B. operating system
C. MAC address
D. timestamp
Answer: D

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NO.20 .The term "Browser Artifacts" refer to:
A. Web browser cache, cookies, favorites, history, auto complete information
B. Older web browser applications that have little or no security and allow for
unchecked use
C. Older web browser applications that can be used as a surveillance tool for
investigators due to their lack of security
D. Web browser cookies
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-646

Exam Name: IBM (Rational Manual Tester)

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NO.1 A tester needs to create tests that include many application screenshots, most of which already exist in
files from creating the user manuals. What is the easiest way to incorporate these into the tests?
A.open the user manuals; select and copy each screenshot image; paste images into the RMT test
B.using the RMT Capture Image feature, choose the Graphic File on Disk option; browse to the file
location
C.open the user manuals; using the RMT Capture Image feature, choose the Region on the Screen
option; select each screenshot
D.copy the screenshot files into the same folder as the RMT test; use the RMT Capture Image feature to
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Answer:B

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about importing these tests into RMT?
A.The import automatically preserves the table formatting.
B.The client must check the Preserve Formatting checkbox for RMT to keep the table formatting.
C.They have an RMT test with listed steps because RMT does not support Microsoft Word tables.
D.Each row becomes a step, not part of a table (but they can copy-paste the table into a single step within
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NO.3 A tester deletes a statement from the Reuse view. How does Rational Manual Tester update scripts that
reference the statement?
A.The statements are removed from the Reuse view and removed from all test scripts that reference them.
B.The statements are removed from the Reuse view, and made local in all the test scripts that reference
them.
C.The statements are removed from the Reuse view and flagged as removed in the scripts that reference
them.
D.The Statements are removed from the Reuse view but the statements are still referenced in the scripts
in which they were used.
Answer:D

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NO.4 When using the Export Formatter to process data according to your needs, what do you modify?
A.getDestinationFile() and run()
B.formatAndExportEvent () and run()
C.setDestinationFile and HtmlFormatter
D.formatAndExportEvent () and getDestinationFile()
Answer:B

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NO.5 When executing a test, what does a small brown box indicate?
A.Manual Tester execution stopped.
B.The executing line is a Verification Point.
C.Paste Data or Compare Data is available to the tester.
D.A screenshot can be associated with this Verification Point.
Answer:C

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Exam Code: 000-138

Exam Name: IBM (Rational RequisitePro)

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NO.1 Where is the password information stored for LDAP-enabled users?
A. the LDAP directory
B. RequisitePro
C. the LDAP Config.ini file
D. the Project.RQL file
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which two methods can be used to deploy RequisitePro for geographically distributed teams?(Choose
two.)
A. install RequisitePro on a supported host environment
B. save requirements documents as Word documents to mail them to distributed team members for
editing
C. use RequisiteWeb for requirements management
D. replicate RequisitePro database at multiple sites
Answer: AC

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NO.3 Which statement is true about cutting and pasting a requirement in a requirements document?
A. A user cannot cut and paste a requirement in a requirements document.
B. A user can use the Cut and Paste commands in the Microsoft Word Edit menu to cut and paste a
requirement in a requirements document.
C. A user should not use the Cut and Paste commands in the Microsoft Word Edit menu to cut and paste
a requirement in a requirements document.
D. A user can use either the Cut and Paste commands in the Microsoft Word Edit menu or the Cut and
Paste commands in the Microsoft Word RequisitePro Requirements menu to cut and paste requirements
in a requirements document.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which RequisitePro system attribute is constant for each requirement?
A. unique ID
B. root value
C. requirement tag
D. location
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the purpose of renumbering requirements?
A. to allow users to identify a desired numbering scheme
B. to eliminate holes in a numbering scheme where requirements have been deleted
C. to aid in the removal of undesired requirements
D. to allow users to change the numbering scheme
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-135

Exam Name: IBM (Rational Host Access Transformation Services (HATS) v7.1)

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NO.1 How might a developer use a shared global variable?
A. share a variable value between the sessions of two different users
B. share a variable value that can be used in a future session
C. share a variable value between two different applications being accessed by a single user
D. share a variable with a non-HATS Web application
Answer: C

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NO.2 To help with debugging HATS applications on a test or production system, a display terminal window
can be displayed. Which statement is FALSE about the display terminal window?
A. Turning on the display terminal option can seriously affect performance or overload the server.
B. The display terminal functions can be turned on using the extended HATS application button
Standard.?
C. It is possible to interact with the host application using the host screen in the terminal window.
D. The display terminal functions can be turned on for any new host connections by selecting the Enable
Display Terminal box on the Trace Settings panel.
Answer: B

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NO.3 In the Lotus Expeditor Client environment, HATS rich client applications can be managed, deployed,
and controlled in a number of ways. What is NOT a supported environment?
A. Lotus Expeditor Server, which contains the Device Manager Server component
B. WebSphere Portal, which allows for centrally-administered, role-based access to applications
C. Eclipse update site, which provides provisioning and updating using a standard Web server
D. WebSphere Application Server, which allows for centrally-administered, role-based access to
applications
Answer: D

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NO.4 What would most improve end user response time for a HATS application?
A. decreasing the timer of the screen settling algorithm
B. using fast 3270e with a host supporting contention resolution
C. increasing the timer of the screen settling algorithm
D. using fast 3270e with a 5250 host
Answer: B

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NO.5 On which environment(s) are HATS Web applications, developed using the HATS Toolkit, supported to
be deployed and run?
A. Eclipse RCP and Lotus(R) Expeditor Client
B. IBM WebSphere application server production runtime
C. IBM and non-IBM Portal Server production runtime
D. any J2EE-compatible application server available on the market
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-669

Exam Name: IBM (SOA Fundamentals (2008))

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NO.1 Which business driver would cause a company in the healthcare industry to consider SOA?
A.Government regulations for communication and interoperability between companies continue to change.
B.The cost of healthcare is increasing extremely fast and SOA will bring the costs back under control.
C.Since doctors and other medical practitioners do not understand IT, SOA can shield these roles from
the underlying technology implementation.
D.Medical providers at smaller companies that use .Net can communicate to larger parent companies that
use Java through Web services interoperability.
Answer:A

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NO.2 Which is a driving business need for SOA?
A.Automate and optimize processes
B.Security, governance and infrastructure
C.Governance, infrastructure and connectivity
D.Interoperability, standards and application integration
E.High availability of hardware, operational systems and services
Answer:A

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NO.3 What does the information in the service registry support?
A.The complete service lifecycle
B.Runtime lookup of service endpoints
C.Enhances messages through mediation
D.Transformation of messages between different technologies
Answer:B

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NO.4 Which role does WS-Security play in an SOA?
A.It provides security interchange for RESTful Web services.
B.It enforces authentication and authorization within an SOA.
C.It provides an end-to-end security context among Web services.
D.It provides a security implementation for Enterprise Service Buses (ESB).
Answer:C

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NO.5 Which SOA architectural concept is applied as an organization combines services to perform a
business process?
A.Modularity
B.Composition
C.Encapsulation
D.Separation of concerns
Answer:B

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NO.6 Which statement describes a business process in the context of SOA?
A.It is a business policy or decision procedure.
B.Items are accumulated and then processed together.
C.It is a series of tasks connected together like building blocks.
D.It enables interactions between message consumers and providers.
Answer:C

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NO.7 In the context of SOA and Business Process Management (BPM), what demonstrates flexibility in a
business process?
A.Tasks can be rearranged without impact to the user.
B.Business rules can be dynamically stopped at runtime.
C.New services can be built at runtime without any special tooling.
D.Business processes can be automated so they do not require feedback.
Answer:A

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NO.8 A retail company is having difficulty implementing changes to its business process. Lines of business
maintain their own data stores and proprietary access interfaces. There are several manual steps which
involve recapturing of data. How can they change this process to make it more efficient?
A.Outsource the shipping function to reduce overhead costs.
B.Create services that combine application and information assets.
C.Create shared services to eliminate redundancies in the process.
D.Choose the latest technology available to integrate the applications and resources.
Answer:C

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NO.9 What is a role of Web services in building an SOA?
A.To provide interoperability using XML-based messages
B.To provide an interface for human interaction using task lists
C.To provide loose coupling via remote method invocations using JAX-RPC
D.To implement the service functionality through interfaces defined in the applications' BPEL
Answer:A

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NO.10 A company has implemented a number of business processes using SOA services. How do they
determine if their new processes are helping the organization to achieve its business objectives?
A.They establish a Center of Excellence (CoE) to monitor and report on the SOA services performance.
B.They contact a third party to analyze and evaluate the new processes against the business objectives.
C.They set and monitor Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) to track performance against the business
objectives.
D.They model the new processes in a business model simulator to identify bottlenecks and potential
performance issues.
Answer:C

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NO.11 How can disparate services communicate with each other in an SOA?
A.Use XML messages to provide interoperability.
B.Service providers adopt one common data model for all services.
C.Enforce a common data model at the Enterprise Service Bus (ESB) layer.
D.Business analysts create the integration logic details to negotiate between services.
Answer:A

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NO.12 What is a typical requirement in an SOA environment for determining business success?
A.Adherence to six-sigma business guidelines
B.A dashboard for reporting metrics to business analysts
C.The ability to pilot the solution in a production environment to business stakeholders
D.The capability to monitor and measure performance against business process goals
Answer:D

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NO.13 How are the capabilities of a Web 2.0 application enhanced by SOA?
A.Two or more SOA services may be connected together to create a new business process, such as in
the case of a mashup.
B.Business users can visually assemble mashups by blending publicly available information and services
with a company's internal information and services.
C.Syndication of site content is enabled through the use of SOA, since it involves standardized protocols,
which permit end-users to make use of a site's data in another context.
D.The community that uses the SOA services can employ community mechanisms on the application,
such as ratings and comments, to provide feedback so the application can be improved on the next
iteration.
Answer:B

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NO.14 In applying SOA, which principle can reduce overall cost?
A.Reuse services across lines of business.
B.Build services for only the most important business functions.
C.Build general services that can perform a variety of business tasks.
D.Reimplement all services on a consistent hardware and software platform.
Answer:A

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NO.15 Which need drives a project to use an SOA approach?
A.Business flexibility
B.Resource virtualization
C.Application integration
D.Improved systems management
Answer:A

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NO.16 Which initiative helps achieve business agility in SOA?
A.Pairing up the appropriate service consumers and providers.
B.Buying prefabricated objects to quickly implement business functions.
C.Choreographing a business process to efficiently implement the desired business functions.
D.Designing and developing a new business process model rather than adapting an existing one.
Answer:C

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NO.17 If a component of the overall system is functionally complete and operates within that system
independently from the functionality of the other components, it is an example of which SOA architectural
concept?
A.Modularity
B.Extensibility
C.Loose coupling
D.Separation of concerns
E.Composite implementation
Answer:A

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NO.18 Which basic characteristics of SOA can contribute to business agility?
A.Reuse and security
B.Loose coupling and reuse
C.Governance and integration
D.Point-to-point integration and extensibility
Answer:B

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NO.19 Failure to adopt SOA will result in which outcome?
A.Automation of document processing will be difficult.
B.Extremely high volume, synchronous, real-time transactions will occur.
C.Integration costs continue to grow without being offset by new business opportunities.
D.IT budget will increase to cover the cost of additional governance and development activities.
Answer:C

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NO.20 When is an SOA implementation most appropriate?
A.Real-time performance is critical.
B.An immediate Return on Investment (ROI) is required.
C.The application interfaces require a high degree of customization.
D.Business functionality is required by many parts of the organization.
Answer:D

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Exam Code: 000-R14

Exam Name: IBM (IBM SurePOS 500 Models 5x5 Technical Mastery)

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NO.1 How many USB ports are available on the IBM SurePOS 5x5?
A.five
B.nine
C.three
D.sevenWArialMangalZ
Answer: B

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NO.2 What are two advantages of the infrared technology used in the IBM SurePOS 5x5? (Choose two.)
A.It is the most economical to mass produce.
B.Field calibration is only required once a year.
C.Infrared touch screens have an unlimited number of touches.
D.It provides the best overall image quality of any touch technology.
E.A special coating makes infrared touch screens easier to clean than other technologies.WArialMangalZ
Answer: CD

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NO.3 Which two statements are true about "dual-channel memory enabled" technology? (Choose two)
A.It makes use of virtual RAM.
B.It doubles the capacity of feeding data to the processor.
C.It has two sets of memory slots (two each) on the system board.
D.It is the equivalent of having two pipelines to the processor rather than one.
E.It partitions a portion of the hard disk drive to be used as an additional memory cache.WArialMangalZ
Answer: BD

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NO.4 Which three processor characteristics are found in the IBM SurePOS 5x5 series? (Choose three.)
A.It is non-socketed.
B.It operates at 2.53GHz.
C.It has an Intel chipset.
D.It has a 533MHz frontside bus.
E.It has an Integrated Graphics Processor.
F.It does not support multi-media applications.WArialMangalZ
Answer: BCD

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NO.5 What is the technology called that cools critical IBM SurePOS 500 system components?
A.cooling wind technology
B.cooling pipe technology
C.mobile cooling technology
D.cooling tunnel technologyWArialMangalZ
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which three Field Upgradeable Units exemplify the "virtually tool-less" design of the IBM SurePOS
5x5? (Choose three.)
A.I/O cover
B.processor
C.system board
D.display panel
E.optional secondary video adapter
F.integrated 2x20 customer displayWArialMangalZ
Answer: ACD

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NO.7 What are three Field Replaceable Units (FRUs) for the main system display? (Choose three.)
A.the video card
B.the front bezel
C.the LCD assembly
D.the video memory
E.the entire display
F.the backlight bulbsWArialCourierCourier NewMangalZX
Answer: BCE

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NO.8 How is dual-channel memory implemented?
A.use the BIOS settings by pressing F2 as the system boots
B.use the utilities and choose the dual-channel memory option
C.update the config.sys file with "Dual-channel memory ON" statement
D.use matched DIMMs that are identical in terms of speed, size, and manufacturerWArialMangalZ
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which type of processor is in the IBM SurePOS 5x5 models?
A.2.0GHz Celeron processor
B.2.53GHz Celeron D processor
C.3.60GHz Pentium D processor
D.3.73GHz Pentium 4 processorWArialMangalZ
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which three improvements have been realized in the touch screen implemented in the IBM SurePOS
5x5 models? (Choose three.)
A.The touch area has been enlarged.
B.It has improved sunlight immunity.
C.The sensitivity of the touch can be regulated.
D.It has a second generation touch-controller chipset.
E.The touch firmware is flash upgradeable in the field.
F.It has an anti-glare coating that is almost imperceptible.WArialMangalZ
Answer: BDE

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Exam Code: LOT-841

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8 Implementing andamp; Administering Securi)

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NO.1 Secure Socket Layer is defined on your Domino server with a certificate from a public Internet
Certificate Authority. Users can successfully connect and authenticate with SSL V3 client types. However,
users with SSL V2 type clients are unable to connect or verify the certificate issued by the public Internet
Certificate Authority. Which of the following statements about your Domino SSL server security remains
true with this configuation?
A.SSL must be enabled for all server ports
B.SSL can ONLY be enabled for POP3, IMAP and SMTP
C.If a server is using SSL, users must access the server using a browser
D.You can require SSL connections for all databases on a server or for an individual databaseWArialZX
Answer: D

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NO.2 Andrea, the Domino Administrator, is attempting to provide SSL authentication for each Internet Site
Document. She has obtained the domain names for each site her company will be utilizing on the Domino
server. However, she has not created an Administration ECL for her Notes users at this time. Which of the
following is required to accomplish the SSL authentication for each site?
A.A single keyring file for the web server must be assigned with a new Administration ECL
B.A server keyring file for each site document must be assigned with no change to the Administration ECL
C.Multiple keyring files for each site document must be assigned with duplicate Administration ECLs for
each site
D.Multiple HTTP instances on the Domino server must be initiated with no change to the Administration
ECL for the main Domino domain, but new Administration ECLs must be created for the additional
domainsWArialZX
Answer: B

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NO.3 As a user, you receive HTML mail regularly that prompts you to retrieve certificates when certain
portions require it. However, you would like to trust numerous consumer web sites in advance of receiving
their emails. Which of the following provides the best way to accomplish this?
A.Manually enter the name of each site into your personal address book
B.In User Security, retrieve Internet security certificates from each server over whatever port is required
C.Open you Domino Directory for your domain and import all the cross-certificates into your personal
address book
D.Send out a certificate request email to each site and use Actions-Accept Certificate from your in-box for
each email returned containing a certificate attachedWArialZX
Answer: B

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NO.4 Steve configures the CRL which creates a new Internet certifier and stores it in the certifier's ICL
database. Steve can also store the CRL certifier where?
A.He can also store the CRL in his local id file for revocation and ICL lookups
B.He can also store the CRL in the Domino Directory in the CA's certifier document
C.He can also store the CRL in the Internet Lockout database to verify presented certificates
D.He can also store the CRL in the Certificate Authority database on the server verifying the ICL
databaseWArialZX
Answer: B

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NO.5 Effective access has been chosen as a security measure for certain databases in your environment.
The first database to be enabled is the Domino Directory. As the administrator responsible for configuring
the change, which of the following two items must be met for effective access to be enabled while allowing
users to still address mail via type-ahead?
A.The ACL must have -Default- set to Reader and the server must have the LDAP task loaded
B.The ACL must have Anonymous removed and the -Default- setting must be a minimum of reader
C.Groups may not be utilized in the ACL and LDAP, IMAP and POP3 must not be enabled on that server
D.The selection to enforce a consistent ACL should be enabled and users must have a minimum of
reader accessWArialZX
Answer: D

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NO.6 Mitchell needs to temporarily allow an undefined owner of a script access to the local file system.
When prompted by Lotus Notes, which of the following options provides the script to run while preventing
future unprompted access?
A.Start trusting the signer to execute this action
B.Trust the signer to execute this action for this Notes session
C.Allow the signer to access local file sytem on all but network drives
D.Embed the signer as an allowed ACL entry and prompt for future accessWArialZX
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following identifies the two types of ECLs ?
A.Public ECL and Personal ECL
B.Workspace ECL and Limited ECL
C.Administrator ECL and User ECL
D.Administration ECL and Workstation ECLWArialZX
Answer: D

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NO.8 Your Domino Directory contains two organizations that are cross certified since the merger took place
two years ago. There are numerous users under both organizational certifiers. You work under the
certifier for NewSports and the other organizational certifier is under the name SportsFundamentals.
SportsFundamentals is cross certified with ShippingEtc and there cross certificate is contained in the
Domino Directory. You now need access to the same ShippingEtc domain so you enter User Security and
obtain all the cross certificates from the Domino Directory. However, this certifier will not populate your
personal address book as a cross certificate. Which of the following is the cause?
A.You do not share a common ancestor
B.The cross certificate is encrypted
C.You cannot pull cross certificates from the Domino Directory
D.Only servers may use cross certificates in the Domino DirectoryWArialZX
Answer: A

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NO.9 Barbara wishes to migrate her company's Notes certifier to the new Certificate Authority process. She
has chosen to encrypt the certifier id with the server id instead of creating a specific trusted id. What
Domino server console command must be issued to secure the certifier?
A.load activate ca
B.load ca unlock
C.tell ca activate
D.tell ca unlock WArialZX
Answer: C

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NO.10 You, as the Domino administrator, have defined a password quality restriction of 1 for a user id file.
Which of the following best describes what is required from the user when changing their password?
A.No password is required
B.Any password is required
C.Special characters are required
D.Any password that does not start with a space is requiredWArialZX
Answer: B

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NO.11 Authentication has been enabled for the SMTP TCP/IP port on your Domino SMTP server. Through
testing you are able to successfully authenticate and send mail to the server over SMTP. However, other
users are unable to connect successfully. You have verified their username and passwords are being
entered correctly. Which of the following best describes why the users cannot authenticate via SMTP with
your Domino server?
A.Users may only connect via SSL to provide a username and password for SMTP
B.The server requires more complex passwords to be supplied for Internet ports
C.Enforce Server Access setting is enabled and the users are not in the Access Server field
D.The users do not have the security policy document applied to their person documents for SMTP
connectionsWArialZX
Answer: C

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NO.12 Curtis enabled extended access control on his domain's Domino Directory to restrict access to the
Internet password field against malicious attacks. Once xACLs were enabled, some LDAP queries
ceased functioning. Which of the following best represents why certain LDAP queries ceased functioning?
A.LDAP may not be utilized against xACL enabled Domino Directories
B.Anonymous access via LDAP is not allowed against xACL Domino Directories
C.LDAP anonymous access is not controlled by the list of fields in the All Server Configuration document
D.Authentication may only be performed with full canonical names once xACLs are enabled on a Domino
DirectoryWArialZX
Answer: B

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NO.13 You wish to verify a digital signature of a mail message sent to your from a foreign organization. Which
of the following best verifies the signature?
A.The existence of a cross-certificate
B.Download the web Internet certificate from the sender's website
C.Send an encrypted reply message to the originator of the message
D.Open the message properties dialog and verify the field $X-MIMEDigSig has a value of 1WArialZX
Answer: A

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NO.14 The size of a SSL session key is determined by which of the following?
A.The cipher being used
B.The user password strength
C.The creation date of the SSL certificate
D.The expiration of the public key presented by the connecting hostWArialZX
Answer: A

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NO.15 Password quality above which of the following levels are resistant to automated password attacks?
A.6
B.10
C.13
D.16WArialZX
Answer: C

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NO.16 Users have had recovery information embedded into their id file since version 5.0.8 of Notes and
Domino. They currently run version 8.0 of Notes and Domino. However, Joshua is moving from the Notes
administration team and into another group. Matthew will take his place. Which of the following describes
the steps necessary to remove Joshua and add Matthew in his place as a proper id recovery authority for
the certifier utilized for user creation and recertification?
A.Matthew and Joshua will have no stpes to perform. Adding the new administrator to the administrators
group in the Domino Directory automatically recertifies the users
B.Joshua must issue an Adminp request to "remove admin from certifier" from the Domino Administrator
client and then Matthew must enter an Adminp request to "add admin to certifier". Both must be approved
by another administrator before recertifying users
C.Recovery information in the certifier id utilized to certify and register users must be modified to add
Matthew and remove Joshua. A recertification of the users under that certifier must occur. Notes 7.0.1 will
NOT prompt the user to accept the change in recovery information
D.The certifier in question must have all recovery authorities removed. A recertification of existing users
must occur to accept the removal of Joshua. Then the certifier must be modified again to add Matthew as
a recovery authority and the users recertified a final time. They will then accept Matthew as a recovery
authority when prompted.WArialZX
Answer: C

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NO.17 Louisa, a mobile user, had her laptop stolen at a recent convention. You, as the Domino administrator,
did not have a security policy in effect and Louisa had used part of her name for the password. When
Louisa logged into the server at the office she received a prompt that contained the following:
"You have a different password on another copy of your ID file and you must change the password on this
copy to match"
She claims she had the same password across all her id files previously, so she called you in attempt to
fix her issue. Which of the following is the reason for the prompt and the best preventative step to take as
the administrator?
A.She has passed her grace period for password changes so her id must be recertified
B.Password quality checking is enabled and her account should be deleted and recreated
C.She utilizes a Smartcard for access and you cannot have passwords match across id files
D.Password verification is enabled and you should clear her password history in her person
documentWArialZX
Answer: D

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NO.18 Internet certificates for regular employees are being stored separately from certificates for previous
contractors of your organization. You were managing multiple Internet certifiers for each group. Which
one of the following best describes where Certificate Revocation Lists are stored for the contractors?
A.In the ICL database and the Domino Directory
B.In the Certificate Authority document in the Domino Directory
C.In the security settings policy document in the Domino Directory
D.In a TXT file defined by the notes.ini of the administration serverWArialZX
Answer: A

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NO.19 A phone call prompts you to immediately revoke an Internet certificate due to a compromised key.
After verifying the caller as a trusted source, what database will you access to revoke the Internet
certificate that was compromised?
A.The CA database for the certifier that issued the certificate
B.The ICL database for the certifier that issued the certificate
C.The CRL database for the certifier that issued the certificate
D.The CERT database for the certifier that issued the certificateWArialZX
Answer: B

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NO.20 You have created a list of IP Addresses that are allowed access and a list of IP Addresses that are
denied access for web security. Both are placed in the appropriate fields and the other access fields are
set to the default. Which field takes precedence BY DEFAULT when the same IP address is found in both
lists and not in any of the alternate default set fields?
A.The Allow Access field
B.The Deny Access field
C.The Substitution Access field
D.An error will be presented stating an address may not be in both fieldsWArialZX
Answer: A

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Exam Code: COG-205

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 8 Controller Technical Specialist)

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NO.1 What can be used to provide remote users with access to Controller over limited bandwidth networks?
A. Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
B. Citrix (Terminal Server)
C. Deterministic Network Enhancers
D. Installing the Gateway in a DMZ
Answer: B

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NO.2 Enhance Reporting Optimization uses which of the following method(s)?
A. RSS 1.0 or higher, if the Database OS is Unix
B. File Copy, if the database OS is Windows
C. RDP to the Web Services Server
D. Controller's FastNet copy utility
Answer: B

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NO.3 What does configuring the .Net 2.0 Framework accomplish?
A. It allows the Controller COM+ object to access the Controller Database.
B. It allows users to communicate with the .Net 2.0 Framework SDK.
C. It creates a Trust between the Controller Client Distribution Server and the Controller client computer.
D. It allows for the encryption of communication between internal server components.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which component of the Controller architecture processes all requests for downloading Controller
components to the end user's computer?
A. Client Distribution Server
B. Content Management Server
C. Web Services Server
D. Report Server
Answer: A

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NO.5 Why is the .Net 2.0 Framework SDK needed?
A. To allow users to publish their Framework Manager models for use with Controller.
B. It provides a Graphical User Interface for configuring the code groups.
C. It is used to configure the Controller Data Mart Database.
D. It is needed when using Controller with SSL (Secure Socket Layer).
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-971

Exam Name: IBM (System i Administrator V5.07.11)

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NO.1 A system has high database disk activity and low CPU utilization. Which of the following is the
least disruptive approach to improving the overall system performance?
A.Activate Expert Cache.
B.Run RCLSTG SELECT(*DBXREF).
C.Set System value QPFRADJ to 2.
D.Install additional disk drives.
Correct:A

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NO.2 An i5/OS system has two fibre channel adapters connected to two tape drives in a 3584 tape
library. Work with Media Library Media shows the same tape volumes in each of two tape libraries.
A backup fails indicating no expired media is available. Which of the following is the most likely
cause of the problem?
A.The media is in category *SHARE400.
B.The media is assigned to the wrong library name.
C.The media library name used in the backup is not varied on.
D.The logical tape library has not been assigned to both tape drives.
Correct:B

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NO.3 A system has the following backup strategy implemented: - A full system backup, including data
queue and output queue entries, is run weekly. - A daily backup is run on the remaining days of
the week using SAVCHGOBJ to capture all changed objects. Which of the following objects will be
omitted from the daily save?
A.Spooled files added since the full backup.
B.Data queues created since the full backup.
C.Output queues created since the full backup.
D.Data queue entries added since the full backup.
Correct:A

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NO.4 Which of the following will ensure that parent/foreign key relationships are maintained?
A.Primary key constraint
B.Database index
C.Commitment control
D.Referential constraint
Correct:D

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NO.5 The administrator needs to configure the system to send messages when % System ASP Used
reaches 90%. Which of the following will accomplish the task?
A.Set QSTGLOWLMT to 10% and QSTGLOWACN to *MSG.
B.Set QASPMAXLMT to 90% and the QASPMAXACN to *SNDMSG.
C.Set QSTGMAXLMT to 90% and register the QIBM_QWC_QSTGMAXACN exit program to *SNDMSG.
D.Set QSTGMINLMT to 10% and register the QIBM_QWC_QSTGLMINACN exit program to *SNDMSG.
Correct:A

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NO.6 Users are complaining that their PC-based application, which connects to the System i using
JDBC, has gotten progressively slower when initially connecting to the System i. The number of
users for this application has been increasing recently. The PC and Network support departments
report no problems. How can the time required for the users' JDBC jobs to start be decreased?
A.Change the duplex setting on the line description from *HALF to *FULL.
B.Move the QZOSIGNON prestart jobs from the QUSRWRK subsystem to the QCMN subsystem.
C.Increase the amount of memory and the maximum number of active jobs for the QSYSWRK subsystem.
D.Increase the "Initial number of jobs" and the "Additional number of jobs" for the QZDASOINIT prestart
job.
Correct:D

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NO.7 A customer has a single partition i525. The system administrator has been asked to implement
WebSphere Application Server Express in order to implement additional functionality of an
installed ERP package. Which of the following must be done to ensure proper performance of the
WAS server?
A.Verify the Query Optimization (QQRYDEGREE) is set to *OPTIMIZE.
B.Review the shared pool memory allocation with an emphasis on the *BASE pool.
C.Verify the system value QMLTTHDACN is set to option 3, "Do not perform the function."
D.Review the shared pool paging sizes to optimize them for WebSphere Application Server Express.
Correct:B

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NO.8 Which of the following describes a PTF that can be applied without a system IPL?
A.A Standard PTF
B.A Permament PTF
C.A Temporary PTF
D.An Immediate PTF
Correct:D

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NO.9 A customer has a System i model 520, serial number 65-47BFD. It is one of several systems
managed by an HMC running Version 7 firmware at TCP/IP address 10.0.0.100. Which of the
following describes how to produce a system plan for this system in file MYPLAN.sysplan?
A.Select system plans from left panel, then select Create System Plan. In the pop-up window, fill in
system plan name and description, click OK.
B.Select "Service Applications" on the HMC and click the Create System Plan option. In the pop-up
window, click the line with 9406-520*6547BFD, and specify file MYPLAN in the file name prompt.
C.Launch SPT and click "Create New Plan." On the next panel, click the "Open an Existing System Plan."
In the file prompt, specify https://10.0.0.100/sysplan. After the system plan is loaded from the HMC, save
to file MYPLAN.
D.Select "System Plans" on the HMC, and then click the "Import button. On the pop-up window, click the
line with 9406-520*6547BFD. When the import completes, click the "Export? button and specify file
MYPLAN in the file name prompt.
Correct:A

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NO.10 An administrator has created a hosted Linux partition on their System i. There are no available
physical Ethernet adapters to dedicate to the Linux partition. Which of the following actions will
establish an Ethernet connection without purchasing a NIC?
A.Place an existing NIC on a switched bus and uncap the resource.
B.Use virtual Ethernet and the "Packet Rules" function in System i Navigator.
C.Attach a bridge to an existing NIC and assign a port to the Linux partition.
D.Implement IPv6 to allow for multi-host communication on a non-shared resource.
Correct:B

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NO.11 The job tables must be compressed at the next IPL. Which of the following will accomplish this?
A.CHGIPLA CPRJOBTBL(*IPL)
B.CHGIPLA CPRJOBTBL(*NEXT)
C.PWRDWNSYS CPRJOBTBL(*ALL)
D.PWRDWNSYS CPRJOBTBL(*NEXT)
Correct:B

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NO.12 An administrator has accidentally disabled the QSECOFR service profile for SST. What is
required to re-enable the service profile?
A.Re-install the base SLIC (microcode) from tape.
B.Sign onto the system as QSECOFR and use the CHGDSTPWD command with *ENABLE.
C.Sign into SST with the 11111111 profile. Re-enable the QSECOFR service profile.
D.Force DST from the control panel. Sign into DST as QSECOFR and re-enable the profile.
Correct:D

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NO.13 A 550 with two active processors has two partitions. Each partition has one capped, shared
processor with one virtual processor. The first partition runs Domino and Apache while the
second runs Websphere and PHP. Performance in both partitions is not what was expected.
Which of the following configuration changes will improve performance?
A.Change the processors to be uncapped.
B.Change the processors to be dedicated.
C.Change the memory allocation to *Dynamic.
D.Increase the virtual processors for each partition.
Correct:B

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NO.14 An administrator has set up the backup strategy as follows: Each weekend a SAVSYS and
SAVLIB *NONSYS are performed. Each night during the week the command SAVCHGOBJ
OBJ(*ALL) LIB(*ALLUSR) DEV(TAP01) REFDATE(*SAVLIB) is run. If on Wednesday a new library is
created but not saved, what will happen on that night's SAVCHGOBJ for the new library?
A.The library and the objects will be saved.
B.The library and the objects will be skipped.
C.Only the objects in the library will be saved and not the library.
D.Only the Library will be saved, unless OBJTYPE(*OBJ) is added to the command.
Correct:C

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NO.15 Database operations are slower on Monday mornings and speed up throughout the week. The
system is IPLed every Sunday evening. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for
this behavior?
A.The system's IPL attribute CHKJOBTBL is set to *ALL.
B.The system is performing periodic data integrity checks after each IPL.
C.The system builds temporary indexes during first access of files after each IPL.
D.The files being accessed must be converted to the system's defined CCSID after each IPL.
Correct:C

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NO.16 Internal audit is planning a security audit next month. The system administrator has been given
the task to prepare the system for the audit. Which of the following commands is used to set
security features to the IBM recommended values?
A.SETSYSSEC
B.CFGSYSSEC
C.WRKSYSAUD
D.STRSYSSEC
Correct:B

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NO.17 The system attention light is illuminated on the front panel of a non-partitioned system but the
system is still operating. Where should the administrator go to find the source of the problem and
turn the attention light off?
A.Use WRKHDWRSC *ERROR
B.Use DSPMSG QSYSOPR and use F16
C.Use the Hardware Service Manager in SST.
D.Use WRKPRB and use F16, Report Prepared Problems
Correct:C

IBM exam   000-971 demo   000-971   000-971

NO.18 Which of the following lists potential job status values when using the WRKUSRJOB command?
A.JOBQ, ACTIVE, OUTQ
B.JOBQ, SUBSYSTEM, ACTIVE-TO-INELIGIBLE
C.JOB INITIALIZATION, PRESTART, AUTOSTART
D.WAIT-TO-ACTIVE, ACTIVE, ACTIVE-TO-INELIGIBLE
Correct:A

IBM exam   000-971 demo   000-971   000-971

NO.19 A System i customer is running DNS on their i5. What must be included in the backup to ensure
the DNS tables are saved?
A.Files QATOC* in library QUSRSYS
B.IFS Directory /QIBM/UserData/OS400/DNS
C.File QDNS[name_of_dns_server] in library QUSRSYS
D.IFS Directory /QIBM/UserData/[name_of_dns_server]
Correct:B

IBM exam   000-971 demo   000-971   000-971

NO.20 An Administrator wants to change the configuration of the telnet server using System i
Navigator. After expanding My Connections -> Server, which of the following procedures
accomplish this?
A.Network -> Servers -> TCP/IP. Right-click the TELNET server and select Properties from the drop down
window.
B.Remote Access Services -> Servers. Right-click the TELNET server and select Properties from the
drop down window.
C.Configuration and Service -> Servers. Right-click the TELNET server and select Properties from the
drop down window.
D.Network -> TCP/IP Configuration -> Servers. Right-click the TELNET server and select Properties from
the drop down window.
Correct:A

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