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Exam Code: 000-M86
Exam Name: IBM (IBM MDM PIM Technical Sales Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 55 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Primary Spec Attributes are used to describe an entry which _________________.
A. can only be an Item
B. can only be a Category
C. can be an Item or a category
D. None of the Above.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the difference between MDM Server and Data Warehouse?
A. MDM Server manages master data only plus, it is operational in nature.
B. MDM Server focuses on transactional data only, it does not manage dimensional data.
C. MDM Sever manages dimensional data.
D. Real-time data warehouse and MDM Sever are exactly same, both provide analytical function.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Where is the exported file stored?
A. External to PIM
B. Message topic
C. Document store
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT a supported destination for export?
A. FTP server
B. HTTP post
C. Messaging topic
D. Email attachment
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following parameters cannot be assigned to a step?
A. Script
B. Timeout values
C. Notification
D. Catalog
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following does NOT describe Master data?
A. Transactional Data and Application-unique data
B. Key facts describing your core business entities: Employee, Products
C. Key facts describing your core business entities: Customers, Partners
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the main benefit of phased approach in PIM implementation?
A. Less development time
B. Clear scope
C. Limited risks
D. Small team
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following is not a supported Import semantics?
A. Update
B. Replace
C. Delete
D. Insert
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which statement(s) about Lookup Tables is/are TRUE? i)Uses a special type of spec: Lookup Table
Spec, which is related to the Primary Spec. ii)Cannot be versioned manually. iii)Do not have an attached
security access control group (ACG). iv)They use hierarchies.
A. Only i is true
B. Only ii is true
C. i, ii, iii are true
D. i, ii, iii, iv are true
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following is a technique to simplify integration interfaces in PIM implementation?
A. Leverage ready to use PIM services.
B. Develop web services.
C. Leverage the enterprise integration layer.
D. Use batch loads.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: COG-645
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 10 BI Multidimensional Author)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 57 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 When would a report author define a set.?
A. To create a slicer to focus on a specific number of years of data in a report.
B. To change the crosstab node member properties for a level.
C. To use as a summary function to return the total of the specified members.
D. To return members from different hierarchies of the same dimension.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What kind of authoring style uses the filter function?
A. Relational
B. Conformed
C. Dimensional
D. DMR
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which term below best describes the selected cell in the crosstab?
A. Level
B. member
C. Tuple
D. Revenue
Answer: C

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NO.4 To create a report from the data source shown, what entities will the report author use?
A. Members
B. Values
C. Attributes
D. MUNs
Answer: B

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NO.5 In a crosstab, Campaign is in the rows area, Order method type is in the columns area, and Quantity is
the measure. Campaign and Order method type are specified in the query. The report runs, displaying
quantity values for all years. Why does this happen?
A. The dimension member from that dimension is implied.
B. The order method member from that dimension is implied.
C. The aggregate member from that dimension is implied.
D. The default member from that dimension is implied.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-561
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System V4.3 Implem)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 92 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Where would a user be added to allow a remote user to access the IBM Security Network Intrusion
Prevention System V4.3 Local Management Interface?
A. the Remote Access policy in IBM Security SiteProtector System (SiteProtector)
B. the User Management utility in SiteProtector
C. the Accounts and Passwords page in the Web interface
D. the Password Management menu in the SSH Configuration menu
Answer: C

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NO.2 Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) exclusions have been added to a Protection Domain, however
events from those VLANs seem to be generated anyway. What is the most likely cause?
A. A VLAN cannot be excluded in a custom Protection Domain.
B. Multiple VLANs cannot be excluded in a custom Protection Domain.
C. Incorrect interfaces have been specified in a custom Protection Domain.
D. The same exception has not been created on the Global Protection Domain.
Answer: C

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NO.3 How is a firewall rule configured to block remote desktop (RDP) access for all interfaces and all Virtual
Local Area Networks.?
A. protocol=TCP, source port exclude RDP
B. action=ignore, select Interfaces, protocol=TCP, port=3389
C. keep all default settings but change the target port to 3389
D. action=drop, protocol=UDP, target port uncheck any and enter 3389
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are two purposes for the Quarantine Rules in the Response Tuning page in the Local
Management Interface? (Choose two.)
A. add new quarantine rules
B. set network configuration options
C. temporarily disable a quarantine rule
D. review rules generated in response to intruder events
E. define how the appliance should send notifications when it detects an intrusion in the network
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Which area of the IBM Protocol Analysis Module technology prevents Skype from using enterprise
network bandwidth?
A. Data Security
B. Application Control
C. Threat Detection and Prevention
D. Client-side Application Protection
Answer: B

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NO.6 Where in the Local Management Interface is the location of the date and time of the last backup of an
IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System V4.3 viewable?
A. Evidence log
B. Message log
C. System Dashboard
D. Security Dashboard
Answer: C

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NO.7 Where is the provinfo file stored?
A. /var/cache
B. /var/support/
C. root directory
D. admin directory
Answer: B

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NO.8 Where in the IBM Security SiteProtector System Console can a customer find the link status of the
Security Interfaces on an IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System appliance?
A. the networkinfo section under Module Status in the appliance Properties screen
B. the Intrusion Prevention section under Module Status in the appliance Properties screen
C. the Security Interfaces section on the Health Summary Network tab in the appliance Properties screen
D. the Internal Communication section on the Health Summary System tab in the appliance Properties
screen
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which interface mode is required in order for quarantine response rules to work?
A. Bypass Mode
B. Inline Protection Mode
C. Inline Simulation Mode
D. Passive Monitoring Mode
Answer: B

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NO.10 Log Evidence is enabled for an event and an administrator wants to review the packet content. Where
in the Local Management Interface is this log file downloaded?
A. under Security Settings, select the policy that logs the event, click on Download Log, and the save file
B. select Review, under Downloads select Logs and Packet Captures, select the files, and click Download
C. on the Security Dashboard, click the Evidence Logs link, click all files related to the event, and save the
files
D. select Home Dashboard, scroll down to the section on evidence logs, select the log file(s), and click
Download
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which two user notification response object types are available in IBM Security Network Intrusion
Prevention System V4.3? (Choose two.)
A. SMS
B. E-mail
C. Remedy
D. Voicemail
E. SNMP Trap/Inform
Answer: B,E

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NO.12 What are two restrictions placed on remote users using IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention
System V4.3? (Choose two.)
A. They cannot reboot the appliance.
B. They cannot log in to the local console.
C. They cannot change the local user account passwords.
D. They cannot save changes to policies in the Web interface.
E. They cannot log in to the appliance when the authentication server is down.
Answer: C,E

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NO.13 Which file can be imported or compiled, and defines the format of SNMP traps for security events
responses in the IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System appliance?
A. iss.mib
B. ibm.mib
C. linux.mib
D. snmp.mib
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which file is accessed on the IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System V4.3 appliance to
determine why it is Active with Errors in IBM Security SiteProtector System?
A. Boot log file
B. Kernel log file
C. Engine0 log file
D. Messages log file
Answer: D

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NO.15 A customer wants to change the severity of an IBM Protocol Analysis Module signature from high to low
in a given protection domain. Which policy meets this requirement?
A. Security Events
B. Open Signatures
C. System Updates
D. X-Force Virtual Patch
Answer: A

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Exam Code: COG-615
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos Real-time Monitoring Developer)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 When editing a user's Access Permissions, what is meant by the term Effective Permissions?
A. the greatest level of permission assigned by Role-Granted and User-Specific permissions
B. the user's permissions against the currently selected object
C. the lowest level of permission assigned by Role-Granted and User-Specific permissions
D. the permission implementation that most effectively secures your application
Answer: A

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NO.2 A virtual machine farm technician is monitoring the memory usage of hundreds of virtual machines in
the farm. The technician previously defined a rule to be informed with an immediate notification if the
memory usage on any virtual machine remains above 90 percent for two minutes. The technician now
wants to reset the alert once the memory usage stabilizes and falls below 80 percent after such an
incident. Which three steps are part of the solution? (Choose three.)
A. Define a rule with condition -- memory usage < 90%.
B. Define a rule with condition -- memory usage < 80%.
C. Create a new alert and select "Reset an alert".
D. Select the alert defined for "memory usage > 90%" and choose "Reset an alert for a specific
occurrence".
E. Specify "Maintain alert states for".
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.3 Which three settings are required to synchronize the user and/or roles from an external directory server,
like LDAP, to Real-time Monitoring? (Choose three.)
A. LDAP User Primary Email
B. LDAP User Base DN
C. LDAP Port
D. LDAP Synchronization User DN
E. LDAP Principal DN Prefix
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.4 A retail customer wants to monitor inventory shortages using the Real-time Monitoring application. They
would like to be notified by e-mail when any particular item is below a predefined threshold. Since
replenishment occurs weekly, they do not want to be notified again until the inventory has been restocked.
Which two actions accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)
A. Create a fire rule with "do not notify" set to seven days.
B. Create a rule which resets a previously raised alert.
C. Create a "notify me once" rule which automatically resets weekly.
D. Create a "raise" rule which will send an alert message.
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 A user wants to set up an escalation rule for an alert which was still in an exception condition for more
than two hours. Which function should be used in the rule?
A. HOLDS_FOR
B. IS_RAISED
C. IS_ACKED
D. ESCALATE
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer switches from internal authentication to external LDAP authentication. They have an
existing internal user "Bob" with a password "internal". They have another user named "Bob" in the
external LDAP server with password "external". They synchronize the users from the external LDAP
server to Real-time Monitoring. Why is the customer unable to login with the username and password
"Bob/external"?
A. Synchronization succeeded and the external user Bob replaced the existing internal user Bob.
B. Synchronization failed as there was an existing internal user Bob in the metadata, so no new external
user was imported.
C. Synchronization succeeded and the external user Bob was skipped because there was an existing
internal user Bob in the metadata.
D. Synchronization failed but the internal user Bob was deleted and no new external user was imported.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A user belongs to a role whose members have read-only access to views, cubes, and dimensions. Why
is this user able to edit a particular view in the Real-time Monitoring Workbench?
A. The user has been granted read/write permission directly on the DataStream used by the view.
B. The role the user belongs to has been granted read/write permission directly on the DataStream used
by the view.
C. All views are editable by default, regardless of permissions inherited by the role.
D. The user has been granted read/write permission directly on the view object.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Real-time Monitoring (RTM) is used as a performance management tool in a call center. An alert with
the agent name and agent code is generated when the performance of an agent is below a specified
threshold value. Managers have requested that the alert message provide a link to the ERP system. The
link should contain the agent code as a parameter in the URL. How would you accomplish this goal?
A. Use an external portlet with a dynamic parameter.
B. Use an external reportlet with a dynamic parameter.
C. Use an external reportlet with a static parameter for the agent code.
D. Insert a direct link to the ERP system in the alert body.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What contains the minimum required access permissions to create a cube?
A. CREATE for Views, Cubes, and Dimensions, CREATE for Lookup Tables and Data Streams, and
READ-ONLY for an existing View
B. CREATE for Views, Cubes, and Dimensions, CREATE for Lookup Tables and Data Streams, and
READ-ONLY for the dimensions to include in the cube
C. CREATE for Views, Cubes, and Dimensions, READ-ONLY for an existing View, and READONLY for
the dimensions to include in the cube
D. CREATE for Views, Cubes and Dimensions, and READ-ONLY for an existing View
Answer: C

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NO.10 A small banking customer is using Real-time Monitoring (RTM) to monitor and notify customers if they
are over drafting their checking accounts. Customer information like name and e-mail address are in a
DB2 database and joined to the data based on the account ID. The customers all have accounts in RTM
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A. Choose the "Account ID" column for a data-driven subscription.
B. Choose the "Email" column for a data-driven subscription.
C. Subscribe the "Customers" role to the alert as a mandatory subscriber.
D. Subscribe each user from the "Customers" role to the alert as an optional subscriber.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-539
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 Administration )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 129 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which command displays the Disaster Recovery Manager (DRM) Plan parameters?
A. Show DRMPLAN
B. Query DRMSTATUS
C. Query Recoveryplan
D. Query DRMRECOVERYPLAN
Answer: B

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NO.2 After configuring the monitoring agent for monitoring, which application is used to display the IBM Tivoli
Storage Manager V6.2 near real-time status?
A. IBM Tivoli Integrated Portal
B. IBM Tivoli Enterprise Portal
C. IBM Tivoli Monitoring Center
D. IBM Tivoli Productivity Center
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which option allows users to specify how directory structures are handled when performing a restore
to a new location?
A. restoredir
B. preservedir
C. restorepath
D. preservepath
Answer: D

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NO.4 How is an Oracle database backed up consistently with IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 (TSM) when
Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN) is not available?
A. shut down the database then select the TSM API
B. leave the database open and use the TSM Backup-Archive client
C. shut down the database then use the TSM Backup-Archive client
D. backup the database using Oracle tools and then use TSM Data Protector for Oracle
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is supported and eligible for export from one IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 (TSM) server to
another?
A. network attached storage nodes
B. data from a Centera device class
C. data from a server with retention protection enabled
D. file data from a TSM V6.2 server to TSM V6.1 server storage
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which option must be set to perform IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 database backups to certain
device classes?
A. set dbbackup
B. set dbrecovery
C. set dbdevclass
D. set drmdbbackupexpiredays
Answer: B

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NO.7 How does an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 administrator create a separate place for backing up a
client's data that must have the most current versions of files for a single server?
A. define a full backup pool
B. define a file device class
C. define an active data pool
D. define a disk storage pool
Answer: C

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NO.8 While attempting to configure a network attached storage (NAS) backup, an IBM Storage Manager
V6.2 (TSM) administrator is unable to access the Web client graphical user interface to initiate a network
data management protocol backup. What are two reasons? (Choose two.)
A. authentication=on is not set on the TSM server
B. insufficient access rights to traverse the NAS file system
C. tocdestination include.nas.fs is not set in dsm.opt
D. tocdestination include.nas.fs is not set in ndmp.opt
E. passwordaccess=generate is not set on the Backup-Archive client
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 Which configuration file must be edited to enable journal backups in AIX?
A. dsm.opt
B. dsm.sys
C. journal.ini
D. tsmjbbd.ini
Answer: D

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NO.10 A network data management protocol (NDMP) network attached storage device must be backed to
IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 (TSM). Which interfaces are supported to perform this function?
A. TSM Client Scheduler, Backup-Archive command line client, administrative command line client
B. TSM Backup-Archive Web client, NDMP command line client, administrative command line client
C. TSM Backup-Archive Web client, Backup-Archive command line client, administrative command line
client
D. TSM NDMP graphical user interface, Backup-Archive command line client, administrative command
line client
Answer: C

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NO.11 What are two optional recovery log types when implementing an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2
server? (Choose two.)
A. Active log
B. Active log mirror
C. Archive Mirror log
D. Active Fail-over log
E. Archive Fail-over log
Answer: B,E

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NO.12 What is the function of the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 (TSM) client scheduler.?
A. It enables security for the scheduling service.
B. It enables tasks to be performed automatically.
C. It enables the client to control access to the TSM server.
D. It enables backup scheduling on AIX or Linux clients only.
Answer: B

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NO.13 What type of information does the Client Activity History Report provide in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager
V6.2?
A. image backups
B. client nodes in session
C. client nodes participating
D. network data management protocol backups
Answer: C

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NO.14 What ensures that VMware full and incremental backups do not backup subfile data relating to the
virtual machine node being protected?
A. exclude.subfile *:\..\*
B. vmbacknodelete YES
C. exclude.dir subfile=no
D. include.subfile g:\tsm\vmbackup\...\*
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which privilege class is needed to issue administrator commands that only affect specific storage
pools?
A. Restricted Policy privilege
B. Restricted Storage privilege
C. Unrestricted Policy privilege
D. Unrestricted Storage privilege
Answer: B

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NO.16 What are two requirements for a properly working Web client? (Choose two.)
A. a supported Web server
B. an administrator with at least node owner authority
C. the client acceptor daemon service dsmcad is set up and running
D. the passwordacces option in the client option file is set to prompt
E. an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 server with an extended edition license
Answer: B,C

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NO.17 How is a management class MC associated with a file or file group in the client options file?
A. update <file name> MC
B. include <file name> MC
C. associate <file name> MC
D. set policy <file name> MC
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which privilege class is required to create the Disaster Recovery Plan?
A. System
B. Security
C. Operator
D. Recovery
Answer: A

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NO.19 What must be defined for data deduplication?
A. active data pool
B. ProtecTIER device
C. client staging area
D. storage pool for deduplication
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which task menu is used when configuring IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.2 Backup-Archive client
preferences in the Backup-Archive graphical user interface?
A. Edit
B. Utilities
C. Actions
D. Options
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-M222
Exam Name: IBM (Tivoli Enterprise Asset Management Sales Mastery Test v2)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 36 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What is IBM Maximo Spatial Asset Management?
A.Geospatially enabled asset and service management
B.A Maximo add-on that provides remote asset management
C.An asset management solution used by NASA
D.An asset management solution to manage linear asset
Answer: A

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NO.2 In which of the following industries are customers are less likely to purchase Maximo Calibration?
A.Government
B.Oil and Gas
C.Life Sciences
D.Nuclear
Answer: A

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NO.3 Today, many companies use converged assets to support their business operations that are
responsible for managing the converged assets?
A.Plant Engineers have sole responsibility for delivering on the converged asset performance
B.ITManagers have sole responsibility for making decisions on how to manage the converged
asset
C.Plant engineers and IT Managers are jointly responsible for delivering high availability of the
converged asset performance
D.Neither Plant Engineers nor IT Managers focus on converged asset performance
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-302
Exam Name: IBM (DB2 9 Database and Application Fundamentals - Academic Initiative )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 188 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Given the following table:
USERS
ID INTEGER NOT NULL
NAME CHAR(20) NOT NULL
PASSWORD VARCHAR(30)
Which INSERT statement is NOT correct?
A. INSERT INTO USERS VALUES ( 23, 'Jim', 'password')
B. INSERT INTO USERS VALUES ( 23, 'Jim', NULL )
C. INSERT INTO USERS VALUES ( 23, '', 'password')
D. INSERT INTO USERS VALUES ( 23, NULL, 'password')
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. A user can define multiple indexes for a single table in DB2.
B. An index for a table is used to improve SQL query performance.
C. An index can be defined on a view.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Consider a table TAB1 having the following values:
TAB1
COL1 COL2
A 10 B 20 C 30 A 10 D 40 C 20
Consider the result of a given query:
COL1
A B
D
Which of the following statements would produce the given query result:
A. SELECT COL1 FROM TAB1 ORDER BY COL1 FETCH FIRST 4 ROWS ONLY
B. SELECT COL1 FROM TAB1 FETCH FIRST 4 ROWS ONLY
C. SELECT DISTINCT COL1 FROM TAB1
D. SELECT UNIQUE COL1 FROM TAB1
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following statements CANNOT be issued against indexes?
A. CREATE
B. ALTER
C. DROP
D. All of the above can be issued against indexes.
Answer: C

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NO.5 If table TABLE1 contains 50 rows, which of the following statement will only return the first five of the
rows?
A. SELECT * FROM table1 MAXROWS 5
B. SELECT * FROM table1 RETURN FIRST 5 ROWS
C. SELECT * FROM table1 WHILE ROW < 5
D. SELECT * FROM table1 FETCH FIRST 5 ROWS ONLY
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following is NOT displayed by DB2 Access Plan?
A. Properties for operators
B. Indexes or columns
C. Global information
D. Authorization type
Answer: D

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NO.7 Consider TB1 has no rows initially and that the auto commit feature is disabled. After execution of the
following statements, how many rows will be inserted in TB1?
INSERT INTO TB1 VALUES (1, 'ABC')
INSERT INTO TB1 VALUES (2, 'DEF') COMMIT
INSERT INTO TB1 VALUES (3, 'GHI')
ROLLBACK
COMMIT
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following is NOT a definition of a relation?
A. A relation may be thought of as a set of columns.
B. Each row represents a fact that corresponds to a real-world entity or relationship
C. Each row has a value of an item or set of items that uniquely identifies that row in the table
D. Each column typically is called by its column name or column header or attribute name
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following is NOT true about Database Management Systems?
A. Relational Database Management Systems use Structured Query Language to interact with
databases.
B. Database Management Systems act as an interface used to communicate with databases.
C. Applications can choose to bypass the Database Management System when accessing databases for
performance reasons.
D. DB2 is a Database Management System.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Consider the following scenario:
Suday: full backup
Monday: delta incremental
Tuesday: incremental
Wednesday: delta incremental
Thursday: system crashed
Which of the following options contains the correct restore order so that the database can be restored to
the last stable moment before the crash.?
A. Restore the incremental backup from Tuesday and the incremental backup from Wednesday, then roll
forward the database using the transaction log files.
B. Restore only the delta incremental backup from Wednesday.
C. Restore the full backup from Sunday, the incremental cumulative backup from Tuesday, the
incremental delta from Wednesday, then roll forward the database using the transaction log files.
D. Restore the full backup from Sunday, the delta incremental from Wednesday, then roll forward the
transaction log files.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Consider the following statement. "Indexes can be created on computed columns." Is this statement:
A. True.
B. False.
C. True, but only when the column data is produced by a sequence.
D. False, but only when the column data is produced by a sequence.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following is NOT a valid authentication type that can be used by DB2?
A. CLIENT
B. CLIENT_ENCRYPT
C. SERVER
D. SERVER_ENCRYPT
Answer: B

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NO.13 Consider the following. As the user MYUSER, you issue the following command:
CREATE ALIAS A1 for T1
What will be the result of the command?
A. The alias DEFAULT.A1 is created for DEFAULT.T1.
B. The alias MYUSER.A1 is created for MYUSER.T1.
C. The alias ALIAS.A1 is created for ALIAS.T1.
D. You get an error because your command is ambiguous, as the schema is not specifieD.
Answer: B

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NO.14 User X needs access to server A and B, while user Y needs access to server B, C and D, how many
DB2 server licenses by PVU do they need in total assuming all users can be using all machines they have
access to at the same time?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following is NOT a valid approach for storing XML documents?
A. Shredding XML documents into tables in a RDBMS
B. Storing XML documents in CLOB columns
C. Inserting XML documents in an integer column
D. Using an external XML-only database
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the following statements can be used to increase in 10% the salary of all employees in
department D1?
A. UPDATE employees WHERE dept = 'D1' SET salary = salary * 1.1
B. UPDATE employees SET salary = (salary * 1.1)
C. UPDATE employees SET salary = salary * 1.1 WHERE dept = 'D1'
D. UPDATE salary = salary * 1.1 ON TABLE employees WHERE dept = 'D1'
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following commands produces a backup image from a database?
A. START BACKUP DATABASE SAMPLE USING D:\bkp
B. BACKUP DATABASE SAMPLE TARGET= D:\bkp
C. BACKUP DATABASE SAMPLE TO D:\bkp
D. START BACKUP DATABASE SAMPLE TO D:\bkp
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following is true about the table below?
CREATE TABLE EMPLOYEE (ID INTEGER NOT NULL,NAME VARCHAR(30) NOT NULL,EXTENSION
INTEGER NOT NULL,MANAGER VARCHAR(30) NOT NULL
PRIMARY KEY (ID));
TERMINATE;
ID NAME EXTENSION MANAGER 1 John S 53412 Y 2 Susan P 54123 N 3 Jennifer L 51234 N
A. ID is a value found in the EMPLOYEE table
B. ID, 1, 2, 3 makes up a row in the EMPLOYEE table
C. The MANAGER domain consists only of the value Y
D. NAME, John S, Susan P, Jennifer L makes up a column in the EMPLOYEE table
Answer: D

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NO.19 The link between a column or set of columns in one table that refers to the set of column in another
table is?
A. Pointer
B. Cursor
C. Primary key
D. Foreign key
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following is the correct syntax for using the XMLTRANSFORM SQL/XML function?
A. UPDATE XSLTRANSFORM (XMLDOC USING XSLT) FROM XMLDATA, XMLTRANS WHERE ID = 1
and XSLID = 2;
B. SELECT FROM XSLTRANSFORM (XMLDOC USING XSLT) FROM XMLDATA, XMLTRANS WHERE
ID = 1 and XSLID = 2;
C. SELECT INTO XSLTRANSFORM (XMLDOC USING XSLT) FROM XMLDATA, XMLTRANS WHERE
ID = 1 and XSLID = 2;
D. SELECT XSLTRANSFORM (XMLDOC USING XSLT) FROM XMLDATA, XMLTRANS WHERE ID = 1
and XSLID = 2;
Answer: D

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Exam Code: SPS-201
Exam Name: IBM (IBMSPSSMBPDA: IBM SPSS Modeler Business Partner Data Analyst Associate)
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Total Q&A: 25 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which fields are created by this Derive dialog?
A. Three fields representing the difference between Travel-1 and each of other Travel fields.
B. No operation will be performed because the express is invalid.
C. Four fields representing the difference in weeks between AcctEst and each of the travel fields.
D. A field representing the difference between AcctEst and the global @ FIELD value.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A prison system has historical data on prison inmates and wants to find what factors are related to
recidivism (return to prison). What type of model would be used?
A. Segmentation model
B. Classification model
C. Association model
D. Anomaly model
Answer: BA

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NO.3 Which node is used to read data from a comma delimited text file?
A. Var. File
B. Data Collection
C. Fixed File
D. Statistics File
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which two SPSS Data Collection components make up SPSS Data Entry.?
A. Interviewer and Reports
B. Author and Reports
C. Author and Interviewer
D. Author and Scan
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which SPSS product(s) are required in order to use SPSS Decision Management?
A. SPSS Collaboration and Deployment Services and SPSS Modeler
B. SPSS Statistics and SPSS Modeler
C. SPSS Collaboration and Deployment Services and SPSS Statistics
D. SPSS Modeler and SPSS Data Collection
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the main purpose of SPSS Data Collection?
A. To gather feedback from constituents for use in advanced and predictive analytics.
B. To retrieve existing data stored from disparate sources.
C. To prepare messy data for more accurate modeling.
D. To integrate analytic results into business processes.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: LOT-986
Exam Name: IBM (Creating IBM Lotus Notes and Domino 8.5 Applications with Xpages and Advanced Techniques )
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Total Q&A: 164 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 What is the purpose of using XSLT in a Lotus Domino Web application?
A. To define what DXL should be available for export.
B. To allow a Web service to interact with a Java agent.
C. To display a view as HTML without using a Java applet.
D. To transform XML documents to HTML or even to another XML document.
Answer: D

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NO.2 An XPage application is mostly made up of the following elements:
A. Forms, views, subforms, pages, framesets, and agents
B. Forms, views, XPages, CSS and themes, and outlines
C. XPages only
D. Forms, views, XPages, custom controls, and CSS and themes
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following describes the destination URL that is generated by Lotus Domino when the user
enters */projects/cio/index.html as the URL?
A. /projects/cio.nsf/index?OpenPage
B. /projects/index.nsf/cio?OpenPage
C. /projects/projects.nsf/cio?OpenPage
D. /projects/cio.nsf/index.html}
Answer: A

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NO.4 Marge wants to track user preference information while users navigate through her Web site, but does
not want to require users to authenticate when accessing the site. Which of the following should she use
to track the user information?
A. Cookies
B. Servlets
C. User profile documents
D. The users must authenticate
Answer: A

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NO.5 Mary is posting a discussion database on the Web. She would like to give general users Author access
to the database, as long as they identify themselves and have registered with her site. Which one of the
following should Mary do to ensure that all users accessing her database are identified and have Author
access?
A. Create an Authors field on her forms and set it to Anonymous.
B. Set the database ACL Default entry to No Access and set the Anonymous to Author.
C. Set the database ACL Default entry to Author and set the Anonymous to No Access.
D. Set the form security property, "Who can create documents with this form", to only allow users in the
Author role.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Monique's laptop was stolen. Monique had locally encrypted the databases on her machine using
medium encryption. Which one of the following can unauthorized users do?
A. Nothing
B. Compact the databases
C. Read copies of the databases made through the operating system
D. Use their user ids to access local databases on Monique's workstation
Answer: A

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NO.7 David migrates an XPage application from his development environment to his test server. When he
tests the application, his browser returns the HTTP 403 error message. What is the most probable cause?
A. He was developing using Firefox but is now looking at the application in Internet Explorer.
B. The application is signed with a development ID. It needs resigning with an ID trusted to run XPages on
the test server.
C. The test server is not running the HTTP task.
D. He is opening the application in the Lotus Notes client. XPages applications can only be viewed on the
web.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which option best describes the benefits of being Ajax-enabled?
A. You do not need to use agents to interact with the server dynamically.
B. Content and code can be loaded when required, rather than when the page is initially displayed.
C. Ajax functionality can be implemented with much less coding than a traditional Lotus Domino web
application.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Joy wants to implement single sign-on for her Lotus Domino Web applications. What does she need to
do?
A. Encode the Single Sign-On form in each database.
B. Enable "Use Single Sign-on" in the database properties.
C. Ensure that all servers are using the same certificate authority.
D. Update the "Session authentication" field in the server's configuration document.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Juanes needs to import some data from a custom application not using a standard database engine,
which is being migrated to a Lotus Notes/Domino application. How can he accomplish this task?
A. Use Lotus Enterprise Integrator.
B. Import data using one of the built-in connection services like DECS or connectors.
C. Export the data to XML on the old application and import it using XMLT.
D. Export the data from the old application to one or more ASCII files and import them by using
LotusScript file access methods.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Nancy is creating a Web application and she needs anonymous users to be able to read content and
create certain documents. What does Nancy need to do?
A. Anonymous users cannot create documents if the ACL is set to Reader.
B. Anonymous must be set to Author in the ACL and forms must be blocked to Anonymous users.
C. Nancy needs to create an Anonymous entry to the ACL with access set to Author. Then, using
@Formula she needs to validate if a document is being created by an Anonymous user.
D. Nancy needs to create an Anonymous entry to the ACL with access set to Reader and the option "Write
public documents." She also needs to make the forms Available to Public Access users.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Josh needs to associate the Price and ProductName fields of the Sales database with fields from the
Inventory table in a relational database. His company uses DECS. He has created a Data Connection
Resource to handle the connection to the Inventory table. What is the next step to make this connection
available to fields on the Product form?
A. From the Advanced tab of the ACL, select "Allow connection to external databases using DCRs". From
the Defaults tab of the Product form properties dialog, click Browse by the Data Source Options and
select the DCR.
B. From the Advanced tab of the database Properties, select "Allow connection to external databases
using DCRs". From the Data Connection Resource properties, select the Product form under "Connection
enabled for?
C. From the Advanced tab of the ACL, select "Allow connection to external databases using DCRs". From
the Security tab of the Form Properties dialog, click Browse by the Data Source Options and select the
DCR.
D. From the Basics tab of the Database properties, select "Allow connection to external databases using
DCRs". From the Defaults tab of the Form Properties dialog, click Browse by the Data Source Options
and select the DCR.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following statements describes the function of SSL?
A. SSL encrypts the database ahead of transmission by using a SOCKS proxy.
B. SSL encrypts the database by creating a certificate authority as a key ring.
C. SSL encrypts the transmission of HTTP by using the user's ID as an encryption key
D. SSL encrypts the transmission of HTTP by using a registered certificate as an encryption key.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Dierdre is periodically asked to update the Readers field in documents created with the SalesOrder form.
If a person's name changes, they are no longer able to access documents they'd been able to access in
the past. Dierdre would like the Readers fields to be automatically updated when someone's name has
been changed in the Domino directory. How can she do this?
A. Open the Security tab of the SalesOrder Form properties. Place a checkmark next to "Enable adminp
updates".
B. Open the Advanced tab of the database ACL. In the selection list for Action, choose "Modify all
Readers and Authors fields".
C. Open the Security tab of the Database properties. In the selection list for Administration Actions,
choose "Update all Readers and Authors fields".
D. Ask a Notes Administrator to enable "Maintain Reader/Author field consistency" on the Security tab of
the server document for her application server.
Answer: B

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NO.15 DJ is developing his first Lotus Domino application. He wants to show a particular set of data to
unauthenticated users and provide additional data to authenticated users. Which of the following can DJ
use to determine whether the user is authenticated or not?
A. @WebName to get the current user's name
B. @UserName, which returns "Anonymous" for unauthenticated users
C. @IsAuthenticated to determine if the user is authenticated or not
D. @WebUserName, which returns an empty string ( "" ) when a user is not authenticated
Answer: B

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NO.16 Barney imports a WSDL file into a LotusScript script library, which generates code to call the Web
service methods defined by the WSDL file. Where can he use this script library.?
A. Only in agents
B. Only in agents that run on the server
C. Only in agents and form or view actions
D. Anywhere that LotusScript can be used
Answer: D

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NO.17 Winnie is enhancing the interface on the Corporate Phone Book Web application. Ted, the graphics
designer who is providing Winnie with the images for her Domino application, has suggested that she use
image resource sets. What is a feature that Winnie can incorporate by using image resource sets?
A. A vertical image set can be used to incorporate effects using the onmouseover, onmouseout, and
onclick events of an image on an XPage.
B. A vertical image set can be used to incorporate effects using the Normal, Mouse-over, Selected, and
Mouse-down image states of a Domino Web page image.
C. A horizontal image set can be used to add effects when a user hovers the mouse over an image. For
example, the normal image could be replaced with a larger image when the mouse hovers over it.
D. A horizontal image set can be used to add effects when a user hovers the mouse over an image. For
example the normal image could be replaced with an image with different coloring when the mouse
hovers over it.
Answer: D

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NO.18 When enabling his XPages application for mobile access, which best describes the options Enrique
should consider?
A. The screen size means different navigation might be required.
B. XPages can be viewed without any additional changes on an iPhone or other iOS device.
C. It might be appropriate to include only a subset of functionality because of the different screen size.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Jim is looking at the Properties dialog box for an agent. Which one of the following best describes the
use of the "Allow user activation" option?
A. Allows users with Editor access or above in the ACL to run an agent
B. Allows users with Author access or above in the ACL to run an agent
C. Allows users with Editor access or above in the ACL to enable an agent
D. Allows users with Author access or above in the ACL to enable an agent
Answer: C

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NO.20 To approve an expense report, Quy goes to a controlled-access section and marks the Status field
"Approved". Status is a sign-enabled field. When is the signature attached?
A. Immediately
B. When the document is saved
C. When the document is mailed
D. When the document is encrypted
Answer: B

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