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Exam Code: 9A0-142
Exam Name: Adobe (Adobe InDesign CS5 ACE Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 99 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 You are creating a document. You have imported a QuickTime movie into your
document. Which of the following features in the Export Adobe PDF dialog box will
enable the movie to be played in Acrobat? Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Interactive Elements checkbox
B. Create PSD File Using Acrobat.
C. Acrobat 5 in the Compatibility pop-up menu.
D. PDF/X4:2008 in the Standard pop-up menu
Answer: A and C

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NO.2 For which of the following tasks is a page tool used? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. To resize several objects that have commonly aligned edges simultaneously, while
keeping the gaps between them fixed
B. To open a set of menu options to change the page size and orientation
C. To move the entire page's contents
D. To adjust the size of a gap between two or more objects
Answer: C and B

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NO.3 In which of the following formats should line art be saved for creating graphics files?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. PNG
B. EPS
C. PDF
D. EMF
Answer: B, C, and D

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NO.4 Which of the following features allows you to change the shape of an object in an
InDesign document?
A. Pathfinder panel
B. Preflight panel C.
Stroke panel
D. Swatches panel
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following commands will you use to open discretionary hyphen?
A. Layout > Insert Special Character > Hyphens And Dashes > Discretionary Hyphen
B. Window > Insert Special Character > Hyphens And Dashes > Discretionary Hyphen
C. Object > Insert Special Character > Hyphens And Dashes > Discretionary Hyphen
D. Type > Insert Special Character > Hyphens And Dashes > Discretionary Hyphen
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following are properties of a path? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Fill
B. Empty
C. Contents
D. Closure
Answer: D, A, and C

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NO.7 Which of the following is not included in the Graphics file formats InDesign imports?
A. Photoshop
B. Flash
C. Illustrator
D. InDesign
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 9A0-063
Exam Name: Adobe (Adobe Acrobat Professional 8.0 ACE Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 111 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 You want to allow users to add a digital signature to your document by using Adobe Reader 8. Which
command should you choose?
A.Advanced > Security Settings
B.Advanced > Sign & Certify > Place Signature
C.Advanced > Enable Usage Rights in Adobe Reader
D.Advanced > Document Processing > Set Document Actions
Answer: C

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NO.2 You want to export your PDF document to a file format that will retain the layout and allow you to edit
the text. Which format should you choose?
A.TIFF
B.JPEG
C.XML 1.0
D.Word Document
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which tool on the Print Production toolbar can be accessed from the Output Preview dialog box?
A.Ink Manager
B.Crop Pages
C.Trap Presets
D.Add Printer Marks
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which Print Production tool allows you to convert all of the spot colors in a document to process colors?
A.Ink Manager
B.Trap Presets
C.PDF Optimizer
D.Output Preview
Answer: A

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NO.5 You want to collaboratively edit a PowerPoint presentation. Which method should you use?
A.Conduct an e-mail-based review
B.Send the PowerPoint slides in a PDF Package
C.Attach the PowerPoint slides to a Shared Review
D.Collaborate via the Web with Adobe Acrobat Connect
Answer: D

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NO.6 You are creating a PDF document from a Microsoft Word document. You want to automatically include
the metadata from the Word document in the PDF document. Which option in the Acrobat PDFMaker
dialog box should you select?
A.Add Links to Adobe PDF
B.Add Bookmarks to Adobe PDF
C.Convert Document Information
D.Prompt for Adobe PDF file name
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which feature is enabled for a Participant in an Adobe Acrobat Connect session?
A.Polling pods
B.The Note pod
C.Screen Sharing
D.The Camera pod
Answer: D

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NO.8 You want to examine and make corrections to your PDF document for common output problems,
compatibility issues, and conformance to standards. Which should you choose?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: B

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NO.9 You want to create a separate archive of all the images in your PDF document. Which command
should you choose?
A.Document > Extract Pages
B.File > Export > Image > JPEG
C.Tools > Advanced Editing > TouchUp Object Tool
D.Advanced > Document Processing > Export All Images
Answer: D

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NO.10 You are using the Review Tracker to send out an email review. You have sent out the initial email.
Which two Review Tracker features are available? (Choose two.)
A.Add Reviewers
B.Import Comments
C.Migrate Comments
D.Email All Reviewers
E.Summarize Comments
Answer: AD

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NO.11 You want to use the Attachments panel to add an attachment to a PDF document. Which icon displays
the Add Attachment dialog box?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: D

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NO.12 What does Total Ink Coverage preview display?
A.Spot colors that overlap process color areas
B.The total percentage of a page covered by any ink
C.The percentage of a process-color ink in a solid-color object
D.Areas that exceed the maximum amount of ink coverage allowed by a printer
Answer: D

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NO.13 You want to export all the images in a PDF document to separate JPEG files. Which command should
you choose?
A.File > Save As > JPEG
B.Document > Extract Pages
C.File > Export > Image > JPEG
D.Advanced > Document Processing > Export All Images
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which statement about toolbars is true?
A.You can hide tools on a toolbar
B.You can add any tool to any toolbar
C.You can combine two toolbars together
D.You can only dock default toolbars in the interface above the document window
Answer: A

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NO.15 You want to edit the text of a PDF document. Which command should you choose to convert the PDF
document into a document that you can edit?
A.File > Export > XML 1.0
B.Document > Extract Pages
C.File > Export > Word Document
D.File > Save As and choose PostScript from the format list
Answer: C

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NO.16 What does right-clicking (Windows) or control-clicking (Mac OS) on a toolbar allow you to do?
A.Undock and redock the toolbar
B.Add or delete items from a toolbar
C.Hide or show button labels on the toolbar
D.Create or delete new tools with JavaScript
Answer: B

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NO.17 You have saved a PDF document by using the Enable Usage Rights command Which two features
are available when the file is opened in Adobe Reader? (Choose two.)
A.Saving form data
B.Applying a password to a PDF document
C.Using commenting and drawing mark-up tools
D.Applying restrictions for printing and copying the PDF document
E.Saving the PDF document as a Microsoft Word document, retaining the layout, fonts, formatting, and
tables
Answer: AC

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NO.18 Which statement about security envelopes is true?
A.Only PDF files can be protected with a security envelope
B.Security envelopes are only compatible with Acrobat 8 and Reader 8
C.They contain the protected file as an attachment to the envelope PDF
D.You can not use a policy server or Adobe Document Center policy with them
Answer: C

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NO.19 You want to use the Output Preview dialog box to show the areas of your document that have a total
ink coverage of 280% or higher. Which should you choose?
A.Ink Manager
B.Simulate Black Ink
C.Total Area Coverage
D.Simulate Paper Color
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which information can you preview by Selecting Preview Separations from the Output Preview dialog
box?
A.Resolution
B.Halftone screens
C.Emulsion options
D.One or more process plates
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 9A0-097
Exam Name: Adobe (Adobe Premiere Pro CS4 ACE Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 90 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 Which of the following options will you select in Adobe Encore's Project panel to check the DVD
transcoded state of the asset?
A. DVD Transcode Settings
B. Blu-ray Transcode Settings
C. Blu-ray Transcode Status
D. DVD Transcode Status
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following steps will you take to import a file as an asset in Encore?
A. Choose Settings > Import as > Asset.
B. Choose File > Asset.
C. Choose File > Import As > Asset.
D. Click Import Asset button.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are using a device controller that generates its own timecode. You want to replace unreadable
timecode recorded on the tape with the controller's timecode in Adobe Premiere Pro. Which of the
following steps will you take to accomplish the task?
A. Go to capture options in the Preference dialog box > Abort Capture on Dropped Frames.
B. Go to capture options in the Preference dialog box > Report Dropped Frames.
C. Go to capture options in the Preference dialog box > Generate Batch Log File Only.
D. Go to capture options in the Preference dialog box > Use Device Control Timecode.
Answer: D

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NO.4 For which of the following elements of a Premiere Pro project can you specify locations under scratch
disk tab in the New Project dialog box?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Preview Audio
B. Edited Sequences
C. Preview Video
D. Captured Audio
E. Captured Video
Answer:A,C, D, E,

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NO.5 You want to add a zoom effect to a slide. What will be the resulted affect of this effect on the image?
A. Flipped image
B. Rolling image
C. Cropped image
D. Change in the image's magnification
Answer: D

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NO.6 . Which of the following tools in Flowchart moves the manually placed items in the Flowchart?
A. Move tool
B. Edit tool
C. Selection tool
D. Direct Select tool
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following options in the Build panel does restrict the number of copies that can be made
of your disc?
A. SSC
B. CGMS
C. CSS
D. Macrovision
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which menu item is related to the layer set that links to the previous submenu when chapter indexes
are created?
A. Next button
B. Button name
C. Chapter button
D. Previous button
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following components of Onlocation records and plays back video clips?
A. Image Viewer and Recorder
B. Field Monitor
C. Digital Video Recorder
D. Sureshot
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following tabs in the New Sequence Dialog box allows you to control the number of video
tracks and the number and type of audio tracks for the new sequences you create?
A. General
B. Audio Settings
C. Sequence Presets
D. Tracks
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following steps will you take to replace a clip with another?
A. Drag a clip from the Project panel or Source Monitor onto a clip in the Timeline panel.
B. Drag a clip from the Project panel or Source Monitor onto the last clip in the Timeline panel.
C. Drag a clip from the Project panel or Source Monitor onto an empty space in the Timeline panel.
D. Remove the unwanted clip and copy the clip from the source and paste on the place of first
clip.
Answer: A

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NO.12 In which format the closed captions are exported?
A. TXT
B. WMV
C. DOC
D. SCC
Answer: D

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NO.13 What characteristics of the audio tracks are determined when you map the audio channels in clips?
A. Format
B. effects
C. Length
D. Type and number
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following options in the Flowchart gives the visual clues about elements and links?
A. Type icons
B. Link lines
C. Info badges
D. Thumbnails
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following steps will you take to apply an effect to a clip?
A. Right click on the clip and select Insert Effect.
B. Drag the effect to the last clip in the Timeline.
C. Drag the effect to a clip in the Timeline panel.
D. Right click on the effect in the Effect panel and select Send to a Clip.
Answer: C

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NO.1 When specifying, who is to provide the valuation services, the important distinction is
whether the client is retaining the appraisal firm itself or the individual appraiser employed
by the firm. The common practice is:
A. To retain the individual appraiser rather than the firm
B. To retain the firm rather than individual appraiser, even though the expert witnesses testify
based upon their individual expertise and opinions
C. To retain the individual since the firm is responsible for completing the assignment
regardless of impairment the individual’s capability to perform the work
D. To retain firm as such practice also tends to provide discontinuity in retention of working
papers and related records, marking them accessible if they are needed months or even yearslater
as they frequently are
Answer: B

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NO.2 The definition of specific business interest can be broken down into two broad questions:
1.-Is the valuation to be a valuation of assets or a valuation of securities?
2)-In either case, exactly what assets or what securities are subject to valuation? By securities
in above context, we mean:
A. Ownership interests; such as marketable securities and commercial papers
B. Ownership interests; such as stock, dept and partnership interests
C. Partnership interests
D. Equity or invested capital
Answer: B

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5. Valuation of
must be specified. For example, the assignment might include
language such as” ...engaged to estimate the fair market value of the fixed assets, inventory,
and goodwill, on a going-concern basis of...”
A. Assets
B. Securities
C. Cooperatives
D. Partnerships
Answer: A

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NO.3 The United State is by far the world leader in markets for both publicly traded securities and
closely held businesses and business interests. Two factors have combined to accelerate the
spread of U.S technology in financial appraisals and market throughout the world. Which of
the following is/are of those factors?
A. Rapidly increasing international flow of capital
B. Growing privatization of formerly socially owned businesses in almost every country of
the world.
C. Increased inflation in major parts of the world
D. Secondary market securities trading phenomenon
Answer: A, B

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NO.4 S corporations, limited liability corporations, limited liability partnerships, family limited
partnerships, professional corporations, real estate investment trust, investment companies
registered under the investment company act of 1940 and personal holding companies are the
examples of:
A. General and limited partnerships
B. Cooperatives
C. Entities’ structures giving rise to special legal or tax considerations (specified structure)
D. Companies following valuation standards
Answer: C

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Exam Code: SD0-101
Exam Name: SDI (Service Desk Analyst Qualification)
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Total Q&A: 165 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 A primary responsibility of the Service Desk is to
A. Manage Major Incidents
B. Act as the resolver for all users Incidents and Service Requests
C. Resolve Problems
D. Acknowledge and record all Incidents and Service Requests
Answer: D

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NO.2 What should an SDA reasonably expect of users when they contact the service desk for assistance?
A. To provide valuable information regarding their opinion of the Service Desk
B. To provide valuable information regarding their view of the SLA
C. To provide an opportunity to receive feedback regarding their technical ability
D. To provide the relevant information needed to resolve their incident
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which option is NOT a characteristic of a successful team?
A. Trust is encouraged amongst team members
B. Support from senior management is received
C. League tables are published
D. Participation in the decision-making process is encouraged
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which option is a benefit of using Knowledge Management in a Service Desk?
A. This ensures that all staff will log Incidents uniformly
B. It removes the need for training of Service Desk staff
C. It reduces the Incident talk time for users
D. It reduces the overall cost of support
Answer: D

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NO.5 Your manager has told you that the Service Desk team must provide excellent customer service at all
times. As an SDA, what is the most important thing you must do to ensure that this happens?
A. Always show plenty of sympathy to the users
B. Always follow the procedures you understand best
C. Always reprimand colleagues who fail to deliver service excellence
D. Always listen to what users tell you
Answer: D

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NO.6 In order to measure its efficiency, a Service Desk routinely measures First Contact Resolution
performance; what else might this data be used for?
A. To measure the effectiveness of the escalation procedure
B. To indicate levels of customer satisfaction
C. To measure how long users wait to speak to an SDA
D. To evaluate and adjust staffing levels
Answer: B

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NO.7 We should maintain a positive service attitude at all times; which option is the best reason for doing
so?
A. A good service attitude will improve SLA performance
B. Users will see the Service Desk as cheerful happy people
C. It will help to build confidence in the service
D. A bad attitude means that SLAs wont be met
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of these options best describes a benefit of good teamwork?
A. There is always someone else to pick up any work you fail to do
B. There is commitment to team decisions
C. There is a specialist for each product or service
D. There is less need for person-to-person communication
Answer: B

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NO.9 A list of desirable attributes included in a job description for a Service Desk Analyst should include ...
A. Seeing a users Incident or Service Request through to resolution, conveying a willingness to help and
being nice to senior management
B. Conveying a willingness to help, focussing on business needs and providing users with the best
possible service
C. Taking ownership of users Problems, maintaining a positive attitude and focussing your attention on
the user
D. Focussing on business needs, providing users with best possible service with an ability to answer a
high volume of calls
Answer: B

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NO.10 Some things can get in the way of good communication which of these options has the biggest impact
on a Service Desk?
A. Noise and general chatter
B. Inappropriate SLAs in place
C. An unreliable IT infrastructure
D. The users status in the organisation
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which option best describes one of the roles of an SDA?
A. Managing users expectations
B. Delivering problem support
C. Negotiating SLAs with customers
D. Achieving reporting targets
Answer: A

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NO.12 A new trainee is being inducted into the Service Desk and s/he questions why there are procedures
and the need for documentation. What should you tell him/her to justify the need for consistent
procedures and processes?
A. Clear procedures mean that everything is done uniformly to eliminate errors
B. Clear procedures mean that customers receive consistent service
C. SLAs and procedures ensure that staff will not be criticised if targets are not met
D. Consistent procedures mean that SLAs and OLAs will always be met
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is the best way for an SDA to enhance the image of the Service Desk?
A. Dress to reflect your professionalism
B. Ensure users are aware that the Service Desk is the key component in IT
C. Provide accurate information to users without denigrating other teams
D. Advise users of resolutions via the weekly Service Desk email
Answer: C

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NO.14 Your organisation has recently implemented SLAs and OLAs. A new starter on your team has confided
in you that they dont really understand what an OLA is; how would you explain it to him/her?
A. It is a legally enforceable contract between a user and a supplier to ensure user satisfaction with
services offered
B. It is an ad-hoc arrangement between internal support teams that is helpful to the support of a contract
C. It is an agreement between internal support teams that defines the support necessary to meet delivery
of IT Services
D. It is a methodology used to measure compliance to standards of behaviour
Answer: C

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NO.15 How would you characterise a failing team?
A. It is managed without SLAs
B. Its members are very touchy feely
C. Its members demonstrate low morale
D. It is solely focussed on business objectives
Answer: C

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NO.16 Your manager has emphasised the importance of establishing effective working relationships with
other teams in the organisation. Of these options, which is the most important activity you should
undertake to enable this to happen?
A. Learn about and recognise the roles and responsibilities of other teams
B. Ensure that your team is seen by users as their champion
C. Treat everyone according to their importance in the organisation
D. Make certain that the IT director is aware of inter-team communication issues
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which these options would NOT be a responsibility of the Service Desk?
A. Representing the IT organisation
B. Delivering first time fixes
C. Operating as a communications channel
D. Providing a reliable IT infrastructure
Answer: D

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NO.18 Consider your responsibilities as an SDA: which of these options best describes one of your principal
responsibilities?
A. To provide easily understood and accurate answers to users questions
B. To provide technically detailed answers to users questions
C. To provide users with information about the workings of the Service Desk
D. To provide recommendations about technical courses to users
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the options best describes a key responsibility of a Service Desk Manager?
A. To deliver ad-hoc levels of service quality from the Service Desk
B. To promote the Service Desk to the organisation and users
C. To manage Incidents and Major Incidents
D. To develop and manage the Problem Management team
Answer: B

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NO.20 Your organisation documents company policies to which it expects all employees to adhere. What is
the most important reason for SDAs to ensure they work within these policies?
A. Company policies support consistent behaviour
B. Company policies emphasise deviations from acceptable behaviour
C. Company policies meet their managers criteria for success
D. Company policies support creative approaches for SDA activities
Answer: A

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NO.21 Why is it important to keep to your commitments to your team members?
A. It will help to ensure that bonuses are paid
B. My colleagues will admire my achievements
C. It improves the morale of the Service Desk
D. Management will not criticise my behaviour
Answer: C

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NO.22 If you are asked to name a Service Desk best practice, which option would be relevant?
A. SAP
B. KCS
C. Problem Management
D. itSMF
Answer: B

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NO.23 Where would you find clear definitions of boundaries and procedures for dealing with inappropriate
behaviour?
A. Company policy documents
B. Incident Management documents
C. Service Desk procedure documents
D. Service Level Agreement documents
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which of these options is NOT part of the correct procedure for putting a user on hold?
A. Asking the user for permission to remotely access their system
B. Communicating a valid reason for putting the user on hold
C. Giving the user a reasonable time frame
D. Regularly updating the user about the wait-time
Answer: A

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NO.25 What is the best type of questioning to use to disengage a caller whilst ensuring a professional
approach to call management?
A. Reflective questions
B. Rapid questions
C. Open questions
D. Closed questions
Answer: D

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NO.26 Which option is the best example of a closed question?
A. What are the symptoms of your Incident?
B. Tell me what you were doing immediately prior to the Incident?
C. What version of the software do you have?
D. How can I be of help?
Answer: C

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NO.27 Which of these options is a characteristic of a successfully performing team?
A. Attendance at team social events is mandatory.
B. The team leader closely manages everyone equally
C. A team member will do anything to be the best
D. Everyone actively listens to each other
Answer: D

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NO.28 What is the best reason for an SDA to follow documented processes and procedures?
A. It ensures that all customers perform consistently
B. It ensures that the SDA performs consistently
C. It ensures that customers consistently provide positive feedback
D. It ensures that the manager is protected from irate users
Answer: B

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NO.29 Which of these options best describes personal accountability?
A. Delivering excellent levels of service quality
B. Admitting to errors
C. Taking ownership of your teams Incidents and Service Requests
D. Behaving and dressing in a distinctive manner
Answer: B

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NO.30 Which attribute would you expect from good team members?
A. They are nice to everyone
B. They have good timekeeping skills
C. They listen to other peoples point of view
D. They cover up their mistakes
Answer: C

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Exam Code: BCP-811
Exam Name: BlackBerry (Developing Java Applications for the BlackBerry Platform)
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Total Q&A: 122 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 Which two of the following classes could be used to check the coverage status? (Choose two.)
A. Radio
B. ConnectionFactory
C. TransportInfo
D. CoverageSate
E. CoverageInfo
Answer: C,E

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NO.2 Consider the code below:
What is a more efficient way of calculating the midpoint? (Choose one.)
A. int midpoint = (int) ((double) width) / 2.0;
B. int midpoint = Fixed32.div(width, 2);
C. int midpoint = (int) (width * 0.5f);
D. int midpoint = width >> 1;
E. int midpoint = width >> 2;
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which keys are required to use the encryption classes in the Java API in order to store encrypted data
on a BlackBerry device? (Choose one.)
A. Code development keys
B. Code signing keys
C. Code runtime keys
D. Code encryption keys
E. Code storage keys
Answer: B

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NO.4 Consider the following small application which creates a linked list like structure:
After execution, at which statement does the ListElement object created at line 6 become a candidate for
garbage collection? (Choose one.)
A. 16
B. 17
C. 21C.21
D. 22D.22
E. 23E.23
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two of the following operations should be avoided on the main event thread? (Choose two.)
A. Pushing a screen onto the display stack
B. Displaying a Dialog screen
C. Performing network communication
D. Calling the sleep method
E. Capturing of keyboard input
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 A developer is writing a game with custom graphics and animations that will need to fit on multiple
screen sizes for various BlackBerry devices. The developer needs to minimize the number of images
created for the game. Which API will support these requirements? (Choose one.)
A. SVG
B. Display
C. Transition
D. Multimedia
E. Game
Answer: A

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NO.7 A developer has been asked to create an application that will display the full name of all people in a
BlackBerry device user address book. The following code is written:
Which two of the following actions must be taken before this code is executed to ensure
compatibility across all versions of BlackBerry Device Software? (Choose two.)
A. The application should initialize all entries of thecontactName String array to empty Strings
B. The application should use theContact.countValues method to verify that the Contact.NAME field
contains an entry
C. The application should verify that it can write to the user address book using
theApplicationPermissions API
D. The application should use theisNull method to verify that the Contact.NAME values are not null
E. The application should use theContactList.isSupportedField method to verify that the
Contact.NAME field can be read
Answer: B,E

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NO.8 A customer needs an application that will store temporary data and expose it to other BlackBerry device
applications. Which API will meet this requirement? (Choose one.)
A. RuntimeStore
B. PersistentStore
C. Location Based Services
D. Global Events
E. Connector
Answer: A

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NO.9 A BlackBerry device application collects information about several hundred books. The application
needs to sort books by title. Which combination of data structures should be used to manage the objects?
(Choose one.)
A.net.rim.device.api.util.SimpleSortingVector and net.rim.device.api.util.StringComparator
B. java.util.Hashtable and net.rim.device.api.util.StringComparator
C. net.rim.device.api.util.StringRepository and net.rim.device.api.util.StringPattern
D. java.util.TreeSet and net.rim.device.api.util.StringComparator
E. java.util.Stack and net.rim.device.api.util.StringComparator
Answer: A

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NO.10 A developer is designing a BlackBerry device application that provides summaries of large amounts of
data. The summaries require extensive computations. Which design approach will meet these
requirements? (Choose one.)
A. Store the full set of data locally on removable media using a compressed format
B. Supplement memory available on the BlackBerry device and compute the results locally
C. Use URL encodings to expedite the transfer of data between a remote server and the
BlackBerry device
D. Compute the summary on a remote server and access the results through a BlackBerry
Enterprise Server connection
E. Use local storage and the floating point processor on the BlackBerry device to speed up computations
Answer: B

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NO.11 An application requires the creation of a custom field that can display animation. Which class and
method combination should be used to accomplish this task? (Choose one.)
A. Field.paint(Graphics graphics)
B. MainScreen.paint(Graphics graphics)
C. Field.subpaint(Graphics graphics)
D. Screen.draw(Graphics graphics)
E. GameCanvas.paint(Graphics graphics)
Answer: A

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NO.12 An application receives notification that a new data object is being saved in the RuntimeStore. It may
take up to 60 seconds to save this data. Which method should the application use to obtain the object
from the RuntimeStore? (Choose one.)
A. get( long objectUID )
B. getInstance()
C. fetch( Class objectClass, long timeout )
D. waitFor( long objectUID )
E. put( long objectUID, Object anObject)
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which push header should be used to verify that push requests are received by a BlackBerry device
application? (Choose one.)
A. X-Rim-Push-Reliability: Transport
B. X-RIM-Push-Deliver-Before Mon, 03 Aug 2009 15:52:00 GMT
C. X-RIM-Push-Deliver-After: Mon, 03 Aug 2009 15:52:00 GMT
D. X-Rim-Push-Priority: High
E. X-Rim-Push-Reliability: Application
Answer: E

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NO.14 An application is needed that can store a list of sales data and customer information. The application
will also need the ability to search through this data and summarize it in an efficient manner. Which data
storage mechanism will assist in meeting all of these requirements? (Choose one.)
A. SQLite
B. PersistentStore
C. RecordStore
D. RuntimeStore
E. FileConnection
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which block of code will ensure that a network connection has been closed? (Choose one.)
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
E. Exhibit E
Answer: A

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NO.16 The following application is set to auto-run at startup:
Which approach would most reliably solve the problem this application will encounter? (Choose one.)
A. It should callThread.sleep() for ten seconds before pushing the screen to verify that the
BlackBerry device has completed its boot up process
B. Threads should be moved to their own standalone class so that they do not cause a security exception
C. Theint values in the MenuItem constructor should equal the y MenuString length to leave enough room
for the string
D. It should use theApplicationManager.inStartup() before pushing the screen to verify that the BlackBerry
device has completed its boot up process
E. It should use theApplicationManager.inStartup() before pushing the screen to verify that the BlackBerry
device has completed its boot up process
F. It should use theApplicationManager.inStartup() before pushing the screen to verify that the BlackBerry
device has completed its boot up process
G. ThemakeMenu method of MainScreen must be overridden to use a menu
Answer: D,E,F

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NO.17 Consider the code below:
How will the connection route be affected? (Choose one.)
A. The connection is never routed through the BlackBerry Infrastructure
B. The connection is routed over the cellular network
C. The connection is routed over the Wi-Fi
D. The connection is routed over the BlackBerry Internet Service -B
E. The connection is never routed through the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
Answer: E

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NO.18 Which three of the following options are contained in a component pack? (Choose three.)
A. BlackBerry Device Simulator
B. JavaDocs
C. API Library
D. Code signing keys
E. Unit Tests Framework
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.19 Consider the Counter class whose code is below:
Assuming that the go() method is always invoked serially, why is a different count printed at the end
almost every time that it is invoked? (Choose one.)
A. Therun() method is not declared "synchronized"
B. The _count variable is not declared "synchronized"
C. The ++ operator is not atomic
D. The _count variable overflows
E. The Counter class is not declared "synchronized"
Answer: C

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NO.20 Consider the addTask() method defined below. Its purpose is to receive incoming tasks and put them
into a Vector, _tasks. Another thread will continuously remove the task at index 0 from the Vector.
Assuming that addTask() is being invoked at a rate roughly equal to the rate at which the tasks are being
processed, which concurrency issue may occur during execution? (Choose one.)
A. Livelock
B. Deadlock
C. Race condition
D. Starvation
E. Unfairness
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-276
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Business Process Manager Express or Standard Edition V8.0, BPM Application Development)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 53 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 A BPM application developer needs to create custom SQL queries targeting the Business
Performance Data Warehouse to satisfy a customer's reporting requirements. While browsing the
system catalog of the database management system, the developer notices tables and views
corresponding to the tracking groups defined in the process application. Which database artifacts
should the developer query to obtain only the actively tracked data? The BPM application developer
should query the:
A. views, because the views contains more recent data than the tables.
B. views, because the views contain only the data resulting from the updated tracking definitions.
C. tables, because the tables contains more recent data than the views.
D. tables, because the tables contain only the data resulting from the updated tracking definitions.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A BPM application developer has completed the development of a process application. The
team lead has now directed the application developer to install the snapshot onto a staging server
for additional testing before it is moved into production. Assuming the default Process Server
settings are in place, what minimum level of access must the developer have in order to install the
snapshot onto the staging server? The application developer must have, at a minimum:
A. write access to the process application with no additional group membership.
B. write access to the process application and must be a member of the process-center-installgroup
as defined in the 100Custom.xml file.
C. administrative access to the process application with no additional group membership.
D. administrative access to the process application and must be a member of the
process-centerinstall-group as defined in the 100Custom.xml file.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A BPM application developer is developing assets at a company with the following BPM
infrastructure:
A) One Process Center environment -The BPM application developer has all security privileges
required to access this environment
B) Three runtime environments- Test, Staging, and Production -Each runtime environment is a two
node, clustered environment -They are all configured as "online" environments -The BPM
application developer has all security privileges required to access those environments
The BPM application developer has all security privileges required to access those environments
The BPM application developer has all security privileges required to access those environments
The BPM application developer has been asked to create a Saved Search in each environment using
the Process Admin Console. How many times must the BPM application developer open a Process
Admin Console to make this change?
A. 1 time, since the Process Center environment's Process Admin console manages all online
environments
B. 2 times, once for the Process Center environment and once for the runtime environments
C. 4 times, since each environment has it's own Process Admin console
D. 7 times, since each node in each environment has its own Process Admin console
Answer: C

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NO.4 A BPM application developer is developing a BPM solution in a process application called
'Auto Loan Review Process' (ALREV). ALREV has an existing dependency on a toolkit called 'Financial
Calculation Services' (FCSERV). The developer is asked to update an integration service in FCSERV
and use that new service in ALREV.
What steps must the developer take to ensure that ALREV will utilize the new service created in
FCSERV?
A. 1. Update the integration service in FCSERV
2.Take a snapshot of FCSERV
3.Update the dependency of ALREV from the FCSERV toolkit
B. 1. Update the integration service in FCSERV
2.Take a snapshot of FCSERV
3.Update dependency on FCSERV from the ALREV process application
C. 1. Create a new integration service in ALREV
2.Move the new integration service from ALREV to FCSERV
3.Take a snapshot of FCSERV
D. 1. Take a snapshot of FCSERV
2.Update the integration service in FCSERV
3.Update dependency on FCSERV in the ALREV process application
Answer: B

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NO.5 After deploying a snapshot onto the production server, the BPM application developer wants
to have two development versions of the process application, one for the resolution of issues that
needs to get fixed immediately in production and one for the development of new features. How
can the BPM application developer obtain the necessary development versions without creating a
new process application?
A. Create a new snapshot for the process application.
B. Create a clone of the snapshot installed in production.
C. Create a new track from the snapshot installed in production.
D. Import the snapshot installed in production into the Process Center.
Answer: C

IBM test questions   000-276   000-276 test answers   000-276

NO.6 A BPM application developer has completed the development of a high profile process
application and is now ready to deploy the solution into the test environment. The application
developer has been told to allow one peer developer and the technical team lead to review and
approve the work before it can be installed onto the test server. The application developer's
manager has requested that the process of gathering these approvals be automated for auditing
purposes. What steps must the BPM application developer take in order to fulfill this requirement?
The BPM application developer must:
A. enable governance on the high profile process and use wsadmin to install the process.
B. create a business process definition, inside of the high profile process application, to implement
the approvals governance process.
C. ask a user with the administrative authority to create a System Governance toolkit dependency to
create a process application that will be used for governance.
D. ensure that there is a task in the governance process that will allow a designated person to install
the process, using Process Center, after all approvals have been received.
Answer: C

IBM   000-276 questions   000-276   000-276

NO.7 The business owner of a purchasing process has requested a report that displays the total time
of three activities. What should the BPM application developer use to send the data to the
Performance Data Warehouse to create this report?
A. A Timing Interval
B. A Service Level Agreement
C. Exposed Process Variables
D. Shared Business Objects
Answer: A

IBM study guide   000-276   000-276   000-276

NO.8 A process owner of an insurance company requests to receive an email if the amount of a loan
is higher than $50,000. After creating the custom Key Performance Indicator (KPI) Amount (currency)
and associating it to the activity, how should the BPM application developer configure the
Assignment Setting to set the value of the KPI to the amount of the loan object? Uncheck "use KPI
defaults", and apply the following settings.
A. Assignment Type: Select Absolute Value Value: tw.local.loan.amount
B. Assignment Type: Select Absolute Value Value: tw.perf.value = tw.local.loan.amount
C. Assignment Type: Select custom JavaScript Value: tw.perf.value = tw.local.loan.amount
D. Assignment Type: Select custom JavaScript Value: tw.local.loan.amount
Answer: D

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