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Exam Code: 101-01
Exam Name: Riverstone (Riverbed Certified Solutions Associate)

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NO.1 Refer to the exhibit.
Which of the following correctly describes the combination of cable types used in a fail-to-wire
scenario for the interconnected devices shown in the exhibit? Assume Auto-MDIX is not enabled on any
device.
A. Cable 1: Crossover, Cable 2: Crossover
B. Cable 1: Straight-through, Cable 3: Straight-through
C. Cable 1: Crossover, Cable 2: Straight-through
D. Cable 1: Straight through, Cable 2: Crossover
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are basic components of the Interceptor appliance? (Select 3)
A. Load Balancing
B. Redirection
C. Peer Affinity
D. Optimization
E. Store SDR data
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 When deploying a Steelhead appliance server-side out-of-path in the data center, what will be the IP
address seen by the destination server in the data center?
A. The client PC s IP address
B. The client-side Steelhead appliance s Primary IP address
C. The client-side Steelhead appliance s In-path IP address
D. The server-side Steelhead appliance s Primary IP address
Answer: D

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NO.4 Assuming the Steelhead appliance has a 250 GB database capacity, by enabling PFS on a supported
Steelhead appliance which of the following would be true:
A. The database capacity will shrink due to the amount of space by PFS
B. The database capacity will grow due to the amount of space by PFS
C. The database capacity does not change
D. The database capacity will have to be reformatted
Answer: C

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NO.5 Steelhead appliance models vary according to which of the following attributes?
Number of concurrent TCP connections that can be optimized
Amount of disk storage available for Scalable Data Referencing
Level of encryption supported
Maximum possible in-path interfaces
A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1, 2, and 4
C. 2,3, and 4
D. 1, 3. and 4
E. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: B

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NO.6 The key difference between the *Degraded* status and the *Critical* status is:
A. With degraded, only one alarm has been triggered, whereas with critical, two or more alarms were
triggered
B. With degraded, the Steelhead appliance is still optimizing traffic, whereas with critical the Steelhead
may or may not be optimizing
C. With degraded, there is no optimization due to a software problem, whereas with critical there is no
optimization due to a hardware problem
D. With both degraded and critical, optimization functions as normal however administrator attention is
required.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following status states of the Steelhead appliance are valid? (Select 3)
A. Degraded
B. Normal
C. Healthy
D. Critical
E. Failed
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 What are the benefits of Application Streamlining?
A. Applications run up to 100 times faster
B. Reduces application chattiness by 65-98%
C. Accelerates the most important applications, such as CIFS. MAPI, NFS. HTTP/S, and MS-SQL Lotus
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which TCP option (probe) is used on the Steelhead Mobile client for auto-discovery?
A. 0x4c
B. 0xc4
C. 0xd4
D. Steelhead Mobile client must use fixed-target rules
Answer: A

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NO.10 An employee who has just installed Steelhead Mobile onto her workstation notices that she never gets
any reduction. It always says 0%. The status of the mobile client appears to be:
Optimization Status : Firewalled
Controller Status : Connected
The reason she is seeing 0% reduction statistics is:
A. Location Awareness is in effect
B. The physical branch Steelhead appliance is her office is behind a firewall
C. The office firewall is stripping the IP options field
D. Her workstation is blocking TCP port 7801
E. The data center is currently firewalling all optimized connections
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ES0-004
Exam Name: RES Software (RES PowerFuse 2010 Basic Exam)

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NO.1 The "Comments" which can be specified when assigning Application Managers to an application is
displayed to the
A. end user when the application is started.
B. end user when access to the application is requested.
C. Application Manager when users are assigned to the application.
D. Application Manager when information about the application is viewed.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Combine different parts of several Active Directory forests, plus a number of Microsoft Windows
Domains
A. 1 and 3
B. 3 and 4
C. 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: D

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3.An administrator changed the Zero Profile mode of an existing application. Users had existing stored
settings for that application. A week later, the administrator switched the application back into its previous
Zero Profile mode. Users now have their previous, week-old settings back. Which Migration Setting has
the administrator used for the switches?
A. Ignore
B. Remove
C. Apply/Convert and keep
D. Apply/Convert and remove
Answer: A

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4.At which of the following points can Folder Synchronization be initiated? 1. Logon 2. Refresh 3.
Reconnect 4. Logoff
A. 1 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 2, and 4
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: D

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NO.3 When a drive mapping for a user fails, in which of the following may the event be displayed? 1. Audit
Trail 2. Usage Tracking viewer 3. An Alerting e-mail 4. Workspace Analysis details
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following USB rules can be used when creating a Zone?
1. USB Vendor ID
2. USB Product ID
3. USB Serial number
4. USB Storage capacity
A. 1 and 2
B. 3 and 4
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: C

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NO.5 A Scope limits a local administrator to his own OU. What is the BEST way to let the administrator
define separate E- Mail Template Outlook signatures for his part of the organization (based on OU)?
A. Create separate instances of Outlook for each OU, each referring to its own E-Mail Template.
B. Create separate instances of Outlook for each OU, each referring to the same E-Mail Template.
C. Create one global instance of Outlook referring to one E-Mail Template with access control set to all
OUs.
D. Create one global instance of Outlook referring to separate E-Mail Templates with access control set to
the respective OUs.
Answer: D

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NO.6 When a user has a question about the user environment, the BEST place for an administrator to find
the answer is in
A. Diagnostics > Usage Tracking.
B. Security > Sessions.
C. Composition > User Settings.
D. Diagnostics > Workspace Analysis.
Answer: D

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NO.7 When using multiple directory services concurrently, an administrator can do which of the following.?
1. Configure a RES PowerFuse Directory Service for tree A and for tree B, but not (yet) for
tree C
2. Configure a RES PowerFuse Directory Service for a part of a Novell tree (by setting a mount point)

NO.8 When publishing applications in Citrix XenApp using RES PowerFuse, Citrix XenApp published
applications can be assigned to one or more Organizational Units. How can the published applications be
configured to keep track of all changes in membership of that OU?
A. Configure the Citrix XenApp integration settings to rebuild its user list for OU-based applications at set
times.
B. Configure the application settings to rebuild its user list for the OUs concerned.
C. Schedule the Citrix XenApp integration settings to republish the application at set times.
D. Schedule the application to be republished at set times.
Answer: A

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NO.9 User Workspace Management consists of
A. Context, Composition and Content
B. Context, Content and Security
C. Security, Diagnostics and Setup
D. Composition, Security, and Extensions
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following conditions need to be true to deny access when a user logs on to a computer?
1. All assigned Workspace Containers contain access control.
2. The user's computer is assigned to one or more Workspace Containers.
3. All assigned Workspace Containers are based on (partial) client name.
4. The user has not been granted access to any of the Workspace Containers.
A. 1 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: C

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NO.11 Terminal Servers and Workstations use RES PowerFuse licenses based on
A. the number of RES PowerFuse Agents.
B. the type of database server.
C. number of user sessions.
D. the operation system.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following tasks can be configured in an Alerting notification type? 1. External task 2.
Mobile text message 3. RES Wisdom task 4. E-mail message
A. 1 and 4
B. 1, 2, and 4
C. 1, 3, and 4
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: C

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NO.13 The Desktop Sampler collects information about Context and Composition. Which of the following
Composition information is sampled?
1. Network Printers
2. User Registry Settings
3. Environment Variables
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2
D. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A

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NO.14 By applying an Exclusive Filter in the Management Console, which objects are displayed?
A. Only objects that do NOT match the specified Filter criteria
B. Only objects that match the specified Filter criteria directly
C. All objects, but objects that do not directly match the specified Filter criteria appear read-only
D. All objects, and objects that directly match the specified Filter criteria have an icon indicating they can
be modified
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is the extension of the files saved by the Desktop Sampler?
A. .XML
B. .ZIP
C. .DTS
D. .XBB
Answer: C

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NO.16 After a full installation of RES PowerFuse on a workstation, an administrator has chosen not to run the
Workspace Composer automatically. How can the administrator configure to run the Workspace
Composer for all users on that workstation?
1. Use SetShell
2. Set the applicable registry key manually
3. Edit the RES PowerFuse Agent
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: D

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NO.17 An administrator has configured User Settings for a specific application in a RES PowerFuse
environment to track registry and files. Global User Settings is enabled. At application level, the User
Setting is enabled, Preserve is checked, Apply is not checked. Sampling ratio is set at 1:1. Start tracking
changes is configured to track changes immediately. What would be the end behavior for this User
Settings configuration?
A. No changes are saved or restored in the user session.
B. Changes are fully saved and fully restored in the user session.
C. Changes are fully saved but not restored in the user session.
D. New changes are not saved but previous settings are restored in the user session.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Use several Active Directory forests in one RES PowerFuse environment

NO.19 If Time Restrictions have been configured for an application, how can the end user check to determine
at what times the application is available?
A. By clicking the Time Left system tray icon
B. By viewing the Opening Times tab for that application in PowerHelp
C. By checking the properties of the application's shortcut in the Start Menu
D. By viewing the Options tab in the Workspace Preferences tool
Answer: B

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NO.20 From which of the following sections can Remote Assistance be started by users belonging to a
specified helper group?
1. Agents Overview
2. User Sessions
3. Workspace Analysis
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2
D. 1 and 3
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ES0-007
Exam Name: RES Software (RES Workspace Manager 2012 Exam)

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NO.1 Which folders are automatically excluded from Read-Only Blanketing?
1. tmp and temp folders
2. User profile and all user profile
3. Recycle bin on all local drives
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: D

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NO.2 User Workspace Management consists of
A. Context, Composition and Content
B. Context, Content and Security
C. Security, Diagnostics and Setup
D. Composition, Security, Extensions
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following notations can be used when creating a Drive Mapping in RES
Workspace
Manager?
1. Http://to a WebDAV folder
2. Https:// to a WebDAV folder
3. Local path to a folder
4. UNC path to a shared folder
A. 4 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: C

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NO.4 Keyboard mappings.

NO.5 What is a Workspace Extension?
A. A workstation-installed application that is integrated in a laptop environment.
B. A Terminal Server-installed application that is published through RES VDX.
C. A workstation-installed application that is integrated in a Terminal Server environment.
D. A Terminal Server-installed application that is published through the RES Workspace Extender.
Answer: C

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NO.6 The option “Allow users to restore their own settings” is selected for an application, but a
user of
the application complains that the “Restore” option has not become available. What is the most
likely cause?
A. The option “number of sessions to keep” has not been set.
B. The user has no stored settings to restore.
C. The application is running in Sampling mode.
D. The user has selected the option “Do not show this message again”.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Language Packs.

NO.8 What happens with the old RES Workspace Manager Environment Password when an
administrator sets a new one?
A. The old password will be honored during a grace period of 30 days.
B. The old password will be stored in the passwords, old file.
C. The old password will be destroyed immediately.
D. The old password can be restored with the license node.
Answer: A

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NO.9 An international Terminal Server farm centrally based in New York has users with different
languages working on it. The best way to create a language-dynamic Start Menu is to base it on
1. Zones.

NO.10 Environment Variables.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: C

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2. To view all registry settings applied to a specific user, an administrator needs to consult the
A. Usage Tracking Viewer.
B. User Session properties.
C. Workspace Analysis Details.
D. User Registry settings filtered by the user.
Answer: C

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3. What components are needed for Desktop Transformation?
1. Desktop Sampler
2. Workspace Model
3. Workspace Preferences
4. Workspace Designer
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: C

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4. By applying an Exclusive Filter in the RES Workspace Manager Console, which objects are
displayed?
A. Only objects that do NOT match the specified Filter criteria.
B. Only objects that match the specified Filter criteria directly.
C. All objects, but objects that do not directly match the specified Filter criteria appear read-only.
D. All objects, and objects that directly match the specified Filter criteria have an icon indicating
they can be modified.
Answer: B

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NO.1 You work as a Network Administrator for McNeil Inc. The company has a Linux-based network.
You are a root user on the Linux system. You have to create a user named Trinity and deny interactive
login. Which of the following should you use to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. vi /etc/passwd
B. vi /etc/shadow
C. useradd Trinity
D. passwd Trinity
E. Trinity:x:505:505::/home/Trinity:/sbin/nonlogin
Answer: A,B,C,D,E

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NO.2 You work as a Linux Technician for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a Linux-based network.
You have configured a database server in the network. Users complain that the server has
become remarkably slow. However, the previous day, the server was performing well. You know that
some of the processes may be the cause of the issue. You run the PS command on the server. In the
result set, which information will you look at that suggests the problematic process?
A. A high load average
B. A high process ID
C. A low load average
D. A low CPU time
E. A high CPU time
Answer: E

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NO.3 You want to make Rick an owner of the files TRADE1.TXT and TRDREPORT.TXT. Which of the
following commands will you use to accomplish this?
A. chown rick TRADE1.TXT TRDREPORT.TXT
B. chgrp rick TRADE1.TXT + TRDREPORT.TXT
C. chown rick TRADE1.TXT + TRDREPORT.TXT
D. chgrp rick TRADE1.TXT TRDREPORT.TXT
Answer: A

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NO.4 You want to verify the PGP signature of all headers and signatures associated with an RPM package.
Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. rpm -e
B. rpm -K
C. rpm --checksig
D. rpm -V
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based
network. John is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He wants to run the cc process at
runlevel three. If the order of execution of cc command is 43, which of the following commands will John
use to accomplish his task?
A. ln -s /etc/init.d/cc /etc/rc.d/rc3.d/K43cc
B. ln -s /etc/rc.d/init.d/cc /etc/rc.d/rc3.d/K43cc
C. ln -s /etc/rc.d/cc /etc/rc.d/rc3.d/s43cc
D. ln -s /etc/rc.d/init.d/cc /etc/rc.d/rc3.d/S43cc
Answer: D

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NO.6 You want only the root access in a Linux computer for maintenance purposes. Which of the following
runlevels will you use to boot the computer?
A. 2
B. 0
C. 1
D. 3
Answer: C

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NO.7 By default, which of the following commands configures the current run level?
A. chkconfig
B. pstree
C. service
D. ntsysv
Answer: D

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NO.8 CORRECT TEXT
Drag and drop the appropriate command in front of its respective function.
Answer: A

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NO.9 You work as a Network Administrator for Rick Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You are
configuring a Linux server. Which of the following bootloaders does not require to be rewritten after the
configuration of the kernel has been changed?
A. GRUB
B. BOOTP
C. LILO
D. ELILO
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following fsck commands will you use to check all filesystems listed in /etc/fstab?
A. fsck -P
B. fsck -f
C. fsck -A
D. fsck -y
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following commands can be used to compress a file?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. gzip
B. compress
C. tar
D. zip
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.12 You work as a Software Engineer for McNiel Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. The
company has 150 Engineers. The root user has configured quota limits for each user. You want to view
quota limits for your system. Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish this task?
A. repquota -a
B. quota -v
C. quotacheck
D. edquota
Answer: B

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NO.13 You work as a Network Administrator for Secure Web Inc. The company has a Linux-based network.
The network has a mixed set of client operating systems. You want to format a new hard disk drive. The
drive will have only one partition. Both the Linux and Windows operating systems will access the partition.
Which of the following file systems will you use?
A. VFAT
B. XFS
C. REISER
D. EXT3
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following commands displays a module name or filename and associated
information, such as the authors name, license, description, module version, dependencies, parameters,
etc?
A. modprobe
B. lsmod
C. modprob
D. modinfo
Answer: D

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NO.15 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a Linux-based network.
You are configuring a server that will be used as a file server. You want to install an RPM package, named
FILELOCATOR, on the server. You want to check whether the package is already installed. Which of the
following commands will you use?
A. grep FILELOCATOR
B. find -q rpm |grep FILELOCATOR
C. rpm -qa | grep FILELOCATOR
D. find FILELOCATOR
Answer: C

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NO.16 John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based
network. He is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He wants to add a soft limit quota
warning for the users, in which, after exceeding the quota value, a user will receive e-mail warnings about
being over quotA. Which of the following commands will John use to accomplish his task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. repquota
B. quotaon
C. warnquota
D. edquota
E. quotaoff
Answer: C,D

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NO.17 Fill in the blank with the appropriate command.
The ________ command recursively removes files, which have not been accessed for a period oftime.
A. tmpwatch
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following commands can be used to modify kernel parameters at runtime?
A. sync
B. sysctl
C. mkinitrd
D. lsdev
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following commands can be used to check the errors of the ext2 and ext3
filesystems?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. fsck --ext2
B. fsck.ext3
C. fsck --ext3
D. e2fsck
Answer: B,D

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NO.20 Which of following options will you use to force mtr to display numeric IP numbers and not try to
resolve the host names?
A. -t
B. -n
C. -l
D. -p
Answer: B

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NO.21 After enabling shadowed passwords in a Linux server, where does Linux keep the passwords?
A. /usr/shadow
B. /etc/passwd
C. /usr/passwd
D. /etc/shadow
Answer: D

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NO.22 What is the minimum RAM requirement for installing Red Hat in GUI mode?
A. 1GB
B. 512 MB
C. 128MB
D. 64MB
Answer: C

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NO.23 Which of the following commands will you run to list all files that have been modified within the last 60
minutes?
A. find /etc -name *.txt
B. find start -dir -min -60
C. find start -dir -cmin -60
D. find start -cmin -60
Answer: C

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NO.24 When installing RHEL in the graphical interface, which of the following switches can be used to specify
a resolution?
A. lowers
B. vnc
C. resolution
D. skipddc
Answer: C

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NO.25 Which of the following commands is used to create a user account for a new user?
A. USERMOD
B. MOUNT
C. USERADD
D. CRUSER
Answer: C

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NO.26 You work as a System Administrator for McNeil Inc. The company has a Linux based network.
You are a root user on Red Hat operating system. You have upgraded the amount of RAM in your system
from 256 MB to 512 MB, but there is only 512 MB of swap space. Therefore, you want to add more swap
space to /dev/hdb2 hard drive to run the applications that require a large amount of memory. Which of the
following commands should you run to accomplish this task? Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose all that apply.
A. mkswap /dev/hdb2
B. swapon /dev/hdb2
C. mount
D. parted
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.27 Which of the following statements are true about kernel modules?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Kernel modules do not support executable loaders.
B. The kernel module contains extra kernel codes that may be loaded after the loading of the basekernel.
Only a minimal resident kernel is loaded into memory at boot time.
C. Kernel modules do not support the device drivers, network drivers, and file system drivers.
D. Whenever a user requests a feature that is not present in the resident kernel, a kernel moduleis
dynamically loaded into memory.
Answer: B,D

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NO.28 After creating the swap area, which of the following commands will you need to run to start using it?
A. mkswap
B. mkfs
C. swapon
D. swapoff
Answer: C

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NO.29 You work as a Network Administrator for Net World International. The company has a Linux-based
network. You want to upgrade an RPM package and get the status during the upgrade. Which of the
following commands will you use to accomplish the task?
A. rpm -ivh
B. rpm -evh
C. rpm -qvh
D. rpm -Uvh
Answer: D

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NO.30 You want to temporarily change your primary group to another group of which you are a member. In
this process, a new shell will be created, and when you exit the shell, your previous group will be
reinstated. Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish this task?
A. chgrp
B. newgrp
C. chmod
D. chown
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 1Z1-051
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NO.1 Evaluate the following query:
SELECT INTERVAL '300' MONTH,
INTERVAL '54-2' YEAR TO MONTH,
INTERVAL '11:12:10.1234567' HOUR TO SECOND
FROM dual;
What is the correct output of the above query?
A. +25-00 , +54-02, +00 11:12:10.123457
B. +00-300, +54-02, +00 11:12:10.123457
C. +25-00 , +00-650, +00 11:12:10.123457
D. +00-300 , +00-650, +00 11:12:10.123457
Answer: A

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NO.2 View the Exhibit and examine the data in the CUSTOMERS table.
Evaluate the following query:
SQL> SELECT cust_name AS "NAME", cust_credit_limit/2 AS MIDPOINT,MIDPOINT+100 AS "MAX
LOWER LIMIT"
FROM customers;
The above query produces an error on execution.
What is the reason for the error?
A. An alias cannot be used in an expression.
B. The a lias NAME should not be enclosed with in double quotation marks .
C. The MIDPOINT+100 expression gives an error because CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT contains NULL
values.
D. The a lias MIDPOINT should be enclosed with in double quotation marks for the
CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT/2 expression .
Answer: A

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NO.3 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PRODUCTS table.
You need to generate a report in the following format:
CATEGORIES
5MP Digital Photo Camera's category is Photo
Y Box's category is Electronics
Envoy Ambassador's category is Hardware
Which two queries would give the required output? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT prod_name q'''s category is ' prod_category CATEGORIES
FROM products;
B. SELECT prod_name q'['s ]'category is ' prod_category CATEGORIES
FROM products;
C. SELECT prod_name q'\'s\' ' category is ' prod_category CATEGORIES
FROM products;
D. SELECT prod_name q'<'s >' 'category is ' prod_category CATEGORIES
FROM products;
Answer: CD

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NO.4 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS table.
Which two tasks would require subqueries or joins to be executed in a single statement? (Choose two.)
A. listing of customers who do not have a credit limit and were born before 1980
B. finding the number of customers, in each city, whose marital status is 'married'
C. finding the average credit limit of male customers residing in 'Tokyo' or 'Sydney'
D. listing of those customers whose credit limit is the same as the credit limit of customers residing in the
city 'Tokyo'
E. finding the number of customers, in each city, whose credit limit is more than the average credit limit of
all the customers
Answer: DE

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NO.5 Which three statements are true regarding the data types in Oracle Database 10g/11g? (Choose
three.)
A. Only one LONG column can be used per table.
B. A TIMESTAMP data type column stores only time values with fractional seconds.
C. The BLOB data type column is used to store binary data in an operating system file.
D. The minimum column width that can be specified for a VARCHAR2 data type column is one.
E. The value for a CHAR data type column is blank-padded to the maximum defined column width.
Answer: ADE

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NO.6 Using the CUSTOMERS table, you need to generate a report that shows 50% of each credit
amount in each income level. The report should NOT show any repeated credit amounts in each income
level.
Which query would give the required result?
A. SELECT cust_income_level, DISTINCT cust_credit_limit * 0.50
AS "50% Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
B. SELECT DISTINCT cust_income_level, DISTINCT cust_credit_limit * 0.50
AS "50% Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
C. SELECT DISTINCT cust_income_level ' ' cust_credit_limit * 0.50
AS "50% Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
D. SELECT cust_income_level ' ' cust_credit_limit * 0.50 AS "50% Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
Answer: C

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NO.7 You need to produce a report where each customer's credit limit has been incremented by $1000. In
the output, t he customer's last name should have the heading Name and the incremented credit limit
should be labeled New Credit Limit. The column headings should have only the first letter of each word in
uppercase .
Which statement would accomplish this requirement?
A. SELECT cust_last_name Name, cust_credit_limit + 1000
"New Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
B. SELECT cust_last_name AS Name, cust_credit_limit + 1000
AS New Credit Limit
FROM customers;
C. SELECT cust_last_name AS "Name", cust_credit_limit + 1000
AS "New Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
D. SELECT INITCAP(cust_last_name) "Name", cust_credit_limit + 1000
INITCAP("NEW CREDIT LIMIT")
FROM customers;
Answer: C

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NO.8 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PRODUCTS table.
All products have a list price.
You issue the following command to display the total price of each product after a discount of 25% and a
tax of 15% are applied on it. Freight charges of $100 have to be applied to all the products.
SQL>SELECT prod_name, prod_list_price -(prod_list_price*(25/100))
+(prod_list_price -(prod_list_price*(25/100))*(15/100))+100
AS "TOTAL PRICE"
FROM products;
What would be the outcome if all the parenthese s are removed from the above statement?
A. It produces a syntax error.
B. The result remains unchanged.
C. The total price value would be lower than the correct value.
D. The total price value would be higher than the correct value.
Answer: B

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NO.9 View the E xhibit and examine the data in the EMPLOYEES table.
You want to generate a report showing the total compensation paid to each employee to date.
You issue the following query:
SQL>SELECT ename ' joined on ' hiredate
', the total compensation paid is '
TO_CHAR(ROUND(ROUND(SYSDATE-hiredate)/365) * sal + comm)
"COMPENSATION UNTIL DATE"
FROM employees;
What is the outcome?
A. It generates an error because the alias is not valid.
B. It executes successfully and gives the correct output.
C. It executes successfully but does not give the correct output.
D. It generates an error because the usage of the ROUND function in the expression is not valid.
E. It generates an error because the concatenation operator can be used to combine only two items.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Examine the structure of the SHIPMENTS table:
name Null Type
PO_ID NOT NULL NUMBER(3)
PO_DATE NOT NULL DATE
SHIPMENT_DATE NOT NULL DATE
SHIPMENT_MODE VARCHAR2(30)
SHIPMENT_COST NUMBER(8,2)
You want to generate a report that displays the PO_ID and the penalty amount to be paid if the
SHIPMENT_DATE is later than one month from the PO_DATE. The penalty is $20 per day.
Evaluate the following two queries:
SQL> SELECT po_id, CASE
WHEN MONTHS_BETWEEN (shipment_date,po_date)>1 THEN
TO_CHAR((shipment_date - po_date) * 20) ELSE 'No Penalty' END PENALTY
FROM shipments;
SQL>SELECT po_id, DECODE
(MONTHS_BETWEEN (po_date,shipment_date)>1,
TO_CHAR((shipment_date - po_date) * 20), 'No Penalty') PENALTY
FROM shipments;
Which statement is true regarding the above commands?
A. Both execute successfully and give correct results.
B. Only the first query executes successfully but gives a wrong result.
C. Only the first query executes successfully and gives the correct result.
D. Only the second query executes successfully but gives a wrong result.
E. Only the second query executes successfully and gives the correct result.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which two statements are true regarding the USING and ON clauses in table joins? (Choose two.)
A. Both USING and ON clauses can be used for equijoins and nonequijoins.
B. A maximum of one pair of columns can be joined between two tables using the ON clause.
C. The ON clause can be used to join tables on columns that have different names but compatible data
types.
D. The WHERE clause can be used to apply additional conditions in SELECT statements containing the
ON or the USING clause.
Answer: CD

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NO.12 Examine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table:
name Null Type
PROMO_ID NOT NULL NUMBER(6)
PROMO_NAME NOT NULL VARCHAR2(30)
PROMO_CATEGORY NOT NULL VARCHAR2(30)
PROMO_COST NOT NULL NUMBER(10,2)
The management wants to see a report of unique promotion costs in each promotion category.
Which query would achieve the required result?
A. SELECT DISTINCT promo_cost, promo_category FROM promotions;
B. SELECT promo_category, DISTINCT promo_cost FROM promotions;
C. SELECT DISTINCT promo_cost, DISTINCT promo_category FROM promotions;
D. SELECT DISTINCT promo_category, promo_cost FROM promotions ORDER BY 1;
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which two statements are true regarding single row functions? (Choose two.)
A. They a ccept only a single argument.
B. They c an be nested only to two levels.
C. Arguments can only be column values or constants.
D. They a lways return a single result row for every row of a queried table.
E. They c an return a data type value different from the one that is referenced.
Answer: DE

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NO.14 Evaluate the following query:
SQL> SELECT promo_name q'{'s start date was }' promo_begin_date
AS "Promotion Launches"
FROM promotions;
What would be the outcome of the above query?
A. It produces an error because flower braces have been used.
B. It produces an error because the data types are not matching.
C. It executes successfully and introduces an 's at the end of each promo_name in the output.
D. It executes successfully and displays the literal " {'s start date was } " for each row in the output.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which statement is true regarding the INTERSECT operator?
A. It ignores NULL values.
B. Reversing the order of the intersected tables alters the result.
C. The names of columns in all SELECT statements must be identical.
D. The number of columns and data types must be identical for all SELECT statements in the query.
Answer: D

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NO.16 You need to extract details of those products in the SALES table where the PROD_ID column
contains the string '_D123'.
Which WHERE clause could be used in the SELECT statement to get the required output?
A. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%_D123%' ESCAPE '_'
B. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%\_D123%' ESCAPE '\'
C. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%_D123%' ESCAPE '%_'
D. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%\_D123%' ESCAPE '\_'
Answer: B

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NO.17 View the Exhibit; e xamine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table.
Each promotion has a duration of at least seven days .
Your manager has asked you to generate a report, which provides the weekly cost for each promotion
done to l date.
Which query would achieve the required result?
A. SELECT promo_name, promo_cost/promo_end_date-promo_begin_date/7
FROM promotions;
B. SELECT promo_name,(promo_cost/promo_end_date-promo_begin_date)/7
FROM promotions;
C. SELECT promo_name, promo_cost/(promo_end_date-promo_begin_date/7)
FROM promotions;
D. SELECT promo_name, promo_cost/((promo_end_date-promo_begin_date)/7)
FROM promotions;
Answer: D

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NO.18 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the SALES, CUSTOMERS, PRODUCTS, and TIMES
tables.
The PROD_ID column is the foreign key in the SALES table, which references the PRODUCTS table.
Similarly, the CUST_ID and TIME_ID columns are also foreign keys in the SALES table referencing the
CUSTOMERS and TIMES tables, respectively.
Evaluate the following CREATE TABLE command:
CREATE TABLE new_sales(prod_id, cust_id, order_date DEFAULT SYSDATE)
AS
SELECT prod_id, cust_id, time_id
FROM sales;
Which statement is true regarding the above command?
A. The NEW_SALES table would not get created because the DEFAULT value cannot be specified in the
column definition.
B. The NEW_SALES table would get created and all the NOT NULL constraints defined on the specified
columns would be passed to the new table.
C. The NEW_SALES table would not get created because the column names in the CREATE TABLE
command and the SELECT clause do not match.
D. The NEW_SALES table would get created and all the FOREIGN KEY constraints defined on the
specified columns would be passed to the new table.
Answer: B

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NO.19 View the Exhibit to examine the description for the SALES table.
Which views can have all DML operations performed on it? (Choose all that apply.)
A. CREATE VIEW v3
AS SELECT * FROM SALES
WHERE cust_id = 2034
WITH CHECK OPTION;
B. CREATE VIEW v1
AS SELECT * FROM SALES
WHERE time_id <= SYSDATE - 2*365
WITH CHECK OPTION;
C. CREATE VIEW v2
AS SELECT prod_id, cust_id, time_id FROM SALES
WHERE time_id <= SYSDATE - 2*365
WITH CHECK OPTION;
D. CREATE VIEW v4
AS SELECT prod_id, cust_id, SUM(quantity_sold) FROM SALES
WHERE time_id <= SYSDATE - 2*365
GROUP BY prod_id, cust_id
WITH CHECK OPTION;
Answer: AB

Oracle   1Z1-051   1Z1-051 pdf   1Z1-051 test answers

NO.20 Which SQL statements would display the value 1890.55 as $1,890.55? (Choose three .)
A. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$0G000D00')
FROM DUAL;
B. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$9,999V99')
FROM DUAL;
C. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$99,999D99')
FROM DUAL;
D. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$99G999D00')
FROM DUAL;
E. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$99G999D99')
FROM DUAL;
Answer: ADE

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Exam Code: 1Z0-040
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle database 10g:new features for adminsitrators)

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NO.1 You have three temporary tablespace groups named G1, G2, and G3 in your database.
You are creating a new temporary tablespace as follows:
CREATE TEMPORARY TABLESPACE TEMP1 TEMPFILE '/u1/data/temp1.dbf' SIZE 10M
TABLESPACE GROUP '';
Which statement regarding the above command is correct?
A.It will create the tablespace TEMP1 in group G1.
B.It will create the tablespace TEMP1 in group G3.
C.It will not add the tablespace TEMP1 to any group.
D.It will create the tablespace TEMP1 in the default group.
E.It will throw an error with message 'specified group is not available'.
F.It will create a new group with a system-generated name and add the tablespace TEMP1 to it.
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-040 braindump   1Z0-040   1Z0-040

NO.2 You have 100 segments in the USERS tablespace. You realize that the USERS tablespace is running
low on space. You can use Segment Advisor to _____.
A.add data files to the tablespace
B.identify the segments that you should shrink
C.modify the storage parameters for the tablespace
D.automatically shrink the segments with unused space
E.check the alerts generated for the tablespace that is running low on space
Answer: B

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NO.3 You executed the following SQL statement to shrink the EMPLOYEES table segment stored in the
EXAMPLE tablespace:
ALTER TABLE employees SHRINK SPACE CASCADE;
Which statement is correct in this scenario?
A.The data in the segment will be compacted but the high water mark will not be adjusted.
B.The EMPLOYEES table will be changed to read-only mode during the shrink operation.
C.The indexes created on the EMPLOYEES table will need to be rebuilt after the shrink operation is over.
D.The shrink behavior will be cascaded to all dependent segments of the table that support a shrink
operation.
E.Data manipulation language (DML) operations will not be possible on the EMPLOYEES table during the
COMPACTION phase of the shrink operation.
Answer: D

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NO.4 You have 100 segments in the USERS tablespace. You get an alert that the USERS tablespace is
running low on space. You decide to shrink some segments. Which option would you use to determine
which segments to shrink?
A.Segment Advisor
B.SQL Tuning Advisor
C.SQL Access Advisor
D.Segment Resource Estimation
E.Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-040   1Z0-040   1Z0-040 original questions   1Z0-040 dumps

NO.5 You created a locally managed tablespace by using the following SQL statement:
CREATE TABLESPACE hr_tbs
DATAFILE 'data.dat' SIZE 1M REUSE
AUTOEXTEND ON MAXSIZE 100M;
The warning and critical tablespace usage threshold values are set to 85% and 97%, respectively. Which
two statements regarding the threshold-based alerts generation for the HR_TBS tablespace are correct?
(Choose two.)
A.A critical alert will be generated when 97 MB space is used.
B.A critical alert will be generated when 970 KB space is used.
C.A warning alert will be generated when 85 MB space is used.
D.A warning alert will be generated when 850 KB space is used.
E.A critical alert will be generated when 970 KB is left as free space.
F.A warning alert will be generated when 850 KB is left as free space.
G.No critical alert will be generated because it is a small file tablespace.
H.No warning alert will be generated because the tablespace is autoextensible.
Answer: AC

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NO.6 Which two statements regarding the FLASHBACK_TRANSACTION_QUERY view are correct?
(Choose two.)
A.You can find information about only active transactions from the view.
B.You can find information about read only transactions from the view.
C.You require the SELECT ANY TRANSACTION system privilege to access the view.
D.You can find information about both active and committed transactions from the view.
E.You require the SELECT ON FLASHBACK_TRANSACTION_QUERY object privilege to access the
view.
Answer: CD

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NO.7 View the Exhibit and examine the recommendation graph provided for a test database by the Undo
Advisor.
The graph recommends that the size of undo tablespace should be set to _____.
A.1 MB
B.6 MB
C.10 MB
D.15 MB
E.11 MB
Answer: E

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NO.8 You plan to create an external table from the EMPLOYEES, DEPARTMENTS, and LOCATIONS
database tables. Which method or command should you use to create and populate the external table?
A.the expdp and impdp commands
B.conventional export and import
C.CREATE TABLE.. and SQL*Loader
D.CREATE TABLE.. and INSERT INTO.. SELECT.. FROM..
E.CREATE TABLE.. ORGANIZATION EXTERNAL ..AS SELECT.. FROM..
Answer: E

Oracle   1Z0-040 exam   1Z0-040

NO.9 You have three production databases, HRDB, FINDB, and ORGDB, that use the same ASM instance.
At the end of the day, you execute the following command on the ASM instance to shut down:
SQL> shutdown immediate;
What is the result of executing this command?
A.All the instances, including the ASM instance, are shut down in the ABORT mode.
B.The ASM instance is shut down, but the other instances are still running.
C.The ASM instance is still functional, but the other instances are shut down.
D.All the instances, including the ASM instance, are shut down in the IMMEDIATE mode.
E.HRDB, FINDB, and ORGDB instances are shut down in the ABORT mode and the ASM instance is
shut down in the IMMEDIATE mode.
F.HRDB, FINDB, and ORGDB instances are shut down in the NORMAL mode and the ASM instance is
shut down in the IMMEDIATE mode.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which two statements regarding the Policy Framework in Enterprise Manager (EM) are correct?
(Choose two.)
A.Policy violations are prioritized as High, Medium, or Informational by category.
B.Policies can be disabled completely, or flagged as ignored, for the specified target.
C.Policies can be flagged as ignored, but never completely disabled, for the specified target.
D.Policy violations must be corrected, otherwise the database will shut down until corrective action
occurs.
Answer: AB

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NO.11 Which are the three levels at which the Segment Advisor generates advice? (Choose three.)
A.block level
B.object level
C.schema level
D.segment level
E.tablespace level
Answer: BDE

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NO.12 The system was running a normal workload during the last 24 hours. You need to ensure that with the
same workload you should be able to flashback tables by three hours. What would you do to find the
system recommendations for the undo retention period and the undo tablespace size?
A.set DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET=10800
B.create a new scheduler window for the time period of 24 hours and use the optimizer statistics
C.modify the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshot time interval to three hours and use ADDM
findings
D.specify New Undo Retention as three hours and Analysis Time period as Last One Day in the Undo
Advisor page and use its recommendations
Answer: D

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NO.13 View the exhibit and examine the sparsely populated EMP table segment.
You execute the following SQL command.
ALTER TABLE emp SHRINK SPACE;
Identify how the data in the segment will be reorganized as a result of the above statement.
A. Exhibit 1.
B. Exhibit 2.
C. Exhibit 3
D. Exhibit 4
E. Exhibit 5
Answer: A

Oracle test questions   1Z0-040   1Z0-040

NO.14 View the Exhibit and examine the SQL statement used to create the EMP table.
You need to shrink the EMP table segment. Which SQL statement would you execute as a prerequisite
before you execute the ALTER TABLE emp SHRINK SPACE; command?
A.ALTER TABLESPACE emp OFFLINE;
B.ALTER TABLESPACE emp READ ONLY;
C.ALTER TABLE emp DEALLOCATE UNUSED;
D.ALTER TABLE emp ENABLE ROW MOVEMENT;
E.ALTER TABLE emp DISABLE ALL TRIGGERS;
F.ALTER TABLE emp ENABLE NOVALIDATE CONSTRAINT emp_last_name_nn;
Answer: D

Oracle test   1Z0-040 study guide   1Z0-040

NO.15 View the Exhibit and examine the highlighted alert.
You have received an alert with the Category specified as Snapshot Too Old. Which page would you
open from the Advisor Central page to determine the system recommendations to avoid such alerts in
future?
A.ADDM
B.Memory Advisor
C.Segment Advisor
D.Undo Management
E.SQL Tuning Advisor
F.SQL Access Advisor
Answer: D

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NO.16 You want to perform the database backup when user activity on your system is low, such as between
12:00 a.m. and 2:00 a.m.
Which command terminates with an error if the backup is not complete at the end of the specified
duration?
A.RMAN> BACKUP DURATION 2:00 MINIMIZE LOAD DATABASE;
B.RMAN> BACKUP DURATION 2:00 PARTIAL FILESPERSET 1 DATABASE;
C.RMAN> BACKUP DURATION 2:00 PARTIAL MINIMIZE TIME DATABASE;
D.RMAN> BACKUP AS COPY DURATION 2:00 PARTIAL MINIMIZE LOAD DATABASE;
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-040   1Z0-040 test answers   1Z0-040 test

NO.17 An online tablespace, TEST_TBS, is full and you realize that no server-managed tablespace
threshold alerts were generated for the TEST_TBS tablespace. What could be the reason, if the
TEST_TBS tablespace does not include autoextensible data files?
A.TEST_TBS is a small file tablespace.
B.TEST_TBS is a bigfile tablespace (BFT).
C.TEST_TBS is the default temporary tablespace.
D.TEST_TBS is a dictionary-managed tablespace.
E.Threshold values for the TEST_TBS tablespace are not explicitly specified.
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-040 demo   1Z0-040

NO.18 You explicitly specified the tablespace usage threshold values while creating a tablespace. You need
to revert to the database-wide default tablespace usage threshold values for the tablespace. Which
PL/SQL package would you use?
A.DBMS_STATS
B.DBMS_ALERT
C.DBMS_SPACE
D.DBMS_MONITOR
E.DBMS_SERVER_ALERT
F.DBMS_SPACE_ADMIN
Answer: E

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NO.19 You need to ensure that the database users should be able to use the various flashback query features
in order to go back in time by four hours. What would you do to achieve this? (Choose two.)
A.set SQL_TRACE=True
B.set UNDO_RETENTION=14400
C.set FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET=240
D.set LOG_CHECKPOINT_INTERVAL=240
E.set DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET=14400
F.issue ALTER DATABASE FLASHBACK ON; command
G.set the RETENTION GUARANTEE clause for the undo tablespace
Answer: BG

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NO.20 You are checking every 10 minutes for alerts regarding the violation of tablespace usage threshold.
Some of the tablespaces' fullness was not detected on time. As a result the transactions were aborted
before you had a chance to resolve the space issue. What would you do to avoid transaction failures?
A.use bigfile tablespaces (BFTs)
B.enable resumable space allocation
C.modify the background process PMON settings
D.modify the LOG_CHECKPOINT_TIMEOUT parameter
E.reduce the default tablespace usage threshold values for the database
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 1Z0-007
Exam Name: Oracle (Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL)

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NO.1 Which three statements correctly describe the functions and use of constraints? (Choose three.)
A.Constraints provide data independence.
B.Constraints make complex queries easy.
C.Constraints enforce rules at the view level.
D.Constraints enforce rules at the table level.
E.Constraints prevent the deletion of a table if there are dependencies.
F.Constraints prevent the deletion of an index if there are dependencies.
Answer: CDE

Oracle   1Z0-007   1Z0-007

NO.2 Evaluate this SQL statement:
SELECT e.employee_id, (.15* e.salary) + (.5 * e.commission_pct)
+ (s.sales_amount * (.35 * e.bonus)) AS CALC_VALUE
FROM employees e, sales s
WHERE e.employee_id = s.emp_id;
What will happen if you remove all the parentheses from the calculation?
A.The value displayed in the CALC_VALUE column will be lower.
B.The value displayed in the CALC_VALUE column will be higher.
C.There will be no difference in the value displayed in the CALC_VALUE column.
D.An error will be reported.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are two reasons to create synonyms? (Choose two.)
A.You have too many tables.
B.Your tables are too long.
C.Your tables have difficult names.
D.You want to work on your own tables.
E.You want to use another schema's tables.
F.You have too many columns in your tables.
Answer: CE

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NO.4 Which two are attributes of iSQL*Plus? (Choose two.)
A.iSQL*Plus commands cannot be abbreviated.
B.iSQL*Plus commands are accessed from a browser.
C.iSQL*Plus commands are used to manipulate data in tables.
D.iSQL*Plus commands manipulate table definitions in the database.
E.iSQL*Plus is the Oracle proprietary interface for executing SQL statements.
Answer: BE

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NO.5 Evaluate this SQL statement:
SELECT e.EMPLOYEE_ID,e.LAST_NAME,e.DEPARTMENT_ID, d.DEPARTMENT_NAME
FROM EMPLOYEES e, DEPARTMENTS d
WHERE e.DEPARTMENT_ID = d.DEPARTMENT_ID;
In the statement, which capabilities of a SELECT statement are performed?
A.selection, projection, join
B.difference, projection, join
C.selection, intersection, join
D.intersection, projection, join
E.difference, projection, product
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-007   1Z0-007

NO.6 Which SQL statement generates the alias Annual Salary for the calculated column SALARY*12?
A.SELECT ename, salary*12 'Annual Salary'
FROM employees;
B.SELECT ename, salary*12 "Annual Salary"
FROM employees;
C.SELECT ename, salary*12 AS Annual Salary
FROM employees;
D.SELECT ename, salary*12 AS INITCAP("ANNUAL SALARY")
FROM employees
Answer: B

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NO.7 The STUDENT_GRADES table has these columns:
STUDENT_ID NUMBER(12)
SEMESTER_END DATE
GPA NUMBER(4,3)
The registrar requested a report listing the students' grade point averages (GPA) sorted from highest
grade point average to lowest.
Which statement produces a report that displays the student ID and GPA in the sorted order requested by
the registrar?
A.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
ORDER BY gpa ASC;
B.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
SORT ORDER BY gpa ASC;
C.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
SORT ORDER BY gpa;
D.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
ORDER BY gpa;
E.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
SORT ORDER BY gpa DESC;
F.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
ORDER BY gpa DESC;
Answer: F

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NO.8 Which two statements are true about constraints? (Choose two.)
A.The UNIQUE constraint does not permit a null value for the column.
B.A UNIQUE index gets created for columns with PRIMARY KEY and UNIQUE constraints.
C.The PRIMARY KEY and FOREIGN KEY constraints create a UNIQUE index.
D.The NOT NULL constraint ensures that null values are not permitted for the column.
Answer: BD

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NO.9 Which is an iSQL*Plus command?
A.INSERT
B.UPDATE
C.SELECT
D.DESCRIBE
E.DELETE
F.RENAME
Answer: D

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button and examine the data in the EMPLOYEES table.
Which three subqueries work? (Choose three.)
A.SELECT *
FROM employees
where salary > (SELECT MIN(salary)
FROM employees
GROUP BY department_id);
B.SELECT *
FROM employees
WHERE salary = (SELECT AVG(salary)
FROM employees
GROUP BY department_id);
C.SELECT distinct department_id
FROM employees
WHERE salary > ANY (SELECT AVG(salary)
FROM employees
GROUP BY department_id);
D.SELECT department_id
FROM employees
WHERE salary > ALL (SELECT AVG(salary)
FROM employees
GROUP BY department_id);
E.SELECT last_name
FROM employees
WHERE salary > ANY (SELECT MAX(salary)
FROM employees
GROUP BY department_id);
F.SELECT department_id
FROM employees
WHERE salary > ALL (SELECT AVG(salary)
FROM employees
GROUP BY AVG(SALARY));
Answer: CDE

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NO.11 What does the FORCE option for creating a view do?
A.creates a view with constraints
B.creates a view even if the underlying parent table has constraints
C.creates a view in another schema even if you don't have privileges
D.creates a view regardless of whether or not the base tables exist
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which SQL statement defines a FOREIGN KEY constraint on the DEPTNO column of the EMP table?
A.CREATE TABLE EMP
(empno NUMBER(4),
ename VARCHAR2(35),
deptno NUMBER(7,2) NOT NULL,
CONSTRAINT emp_deptno_fk FOREIGN KEY deptno
REFERENCES dept deptno);
B.CREATE TABLE EMP
(empno NUMBER(4),
ename VARCHAR2(35),
deptno NUMBER(7,2)
CONSTRAINT emp_deptno_fk REFERENCES dept (deptno));
C.CREATE TABLE EMP
(empno NUMBER(4),
ename VARCHAR2(35),
deptno NUMBER(7,2) NOT NULL,
CONSTRAINT emp_deptno_fk REFERENCES dept (deptno)
FOREIGN KEY (deptno));
D.CREATE TABLE EMP
(empno NUMBER(4),
ename VARCHAR2(35),
deptno NUMBER(7,2) FOREIGN KEY
CONSTRAINT emp_deptno_fk REFERENCES dept (deptno));
Answer: B

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NO.13 In which three cases would you use the USING clause? (Choose three.)
A.You want to create a nonequijoin.
B.The tables to be joined have multiple NULL columns.
C.The tables to be joined have columns of the same name and different data types.
D.The tables to be joined have columns with the same name and compatible data types.
E.You want to use a NATURAL join, but you want to restrict the number of columns in the join condition.
Answer: CDE

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NO.14 Evaluate this SQL statement:
SELECT ename, sal, 12*sal+100
FROM emp;
The SAL column stores the monthly salary of the employee. Which change must be made to the above
syntax to calculate the annual compensation as "monthly salary plus a monthly bonus of $100, multiplied
by 12"?
A.No change is required to achieve the desired results.
B.SELECT ename, sal, 12*(sal+100)
FROM emp;
C.SELECT ename, sal, (12*sal)+100
FROM emp;
D.SELECT ename, sal+100,*12
FROM emp;
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which are iSQL*Plus commands? (Choose all that apply.)
A.INSERT
B.UPDATE
C.SELECT
D.DESCRIBE
E.DELETE
F.RENAME
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-007 test answers   1Z0-007   1Z0-007   1Z0-007

NO.16 Which view should a user query to display the columns associated with the constraints on a table
owned by the user?
A.USER_CONSTRAINTS
B.USER_OBJECTS
C.ALL_CONSTRAINTS
D.USER_CONS_COLUMNS
E.USER_COLUMNS
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-007   1Z0-007 test questions

NO.17 You need to design a student registration database that contains several tables storing academic
information.
The STUDENTS table stores information about a student. The STUDENT_GRADES table stores
information about the student's grades. Both of the tables have a column named STUDENT_ID. The
STUDENT_ID column in the STUDENTS table is a primary key.
You need to create a foreign key on the STUDENT_ID column of the STUDENT_GRADES table that
points to the STUDENT_ID column of the STUDENTS table. Which statement creates the foreign key?
A.CREATE TABLE student_grades
(student_id NUMBER(12),
semester_end DATE,
gpa NUMBER(4,3),
CONSTRAINT student_id_fk REFERENCES (student_id)
FOREIGN KEY students(student_id));
B.CREATE TABLE student_grades
(student_id NUMBER(12),
semester_end DATE,
gpa NUMBER(4,3),
student_id_fk FOREIGN KEY (student_id)
REFERENCES students(student_id));
C.CREATE TABLE student_grades
(student_id NUMBER(12),
semester_end DATE,
gpa NUMBER(4,3),
CONSTRAINT FOREIGN KEY (student_id)
REFERENCES students(student_id));
D.CREATE TABLE student_grades
(student_id NUMBER(12),
semester_end DATE,
gpa NUMBER(4,3),
CONSTRAINT student_id_fk FOREIGN KEY (student_id)
REFERENCES students(student_id));
Answer: D

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NO.18 A SELECT statement can be used to perform these three functions:
1. Choose rows from a table.
2. Choose columns from a table.
3. Bring together data that is stored in different tables by creating a link between them.
Which set of keywords describes these capabilities?
A.difference, projection, join
B.selection, projection, join
C.selection, intersection, join
D.intersection, projection, join
E.difference, projection, product
Answer: B

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NO.19 The CUSTOMERS table has these columns:
CUSTOMER_ID NUMBER(4) NOT NULL
CUSTOMER_NAME VARCHAR2(100) NOT NULL
STREET_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(150)
CITY_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50)
STATE_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50)
PROVINCE_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50)
COUNTRY_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50)
POSTAL_CODE VARCHAR2(12)
CUSTOMER_PHONE VARCHAR2(20)
The CUSTOMER_ID column is the primary key for the table.
You need to determine how dispersed your customer base is. Which expression finds the number of
different countries represented in the CUSTOMERS table?
A.COUNT(UPPER(country_address))
B.COUNT(DIFF(UPPER(country_address)))
C.COUNT(UNIQUE(UPPER(country_address)))
D.COUNT DISTINCT UPPER(country_address)
E.COUNT(DISTINCT (UPPER(country_address)))
Answer: E

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NO.20 The CUSTOMERS table has these columns:
CUSTOMER_ID NUMBER(4) NOT NULL
CUSTOMER_NAME VARCHAR2(100) NOT NULL
CUSTOMER_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(150)
CUSTOMER_PHONE VARCHAR2(20)
You need to produce output that states "Dear Customer customer_name, ".
The customer_name data values come from the CUSTOMER_NAME column in the CUSTOMERS table.
Which statement produces this output?
A.SELECT dear customer, customer_name,
B.SELECT "Dear Customer", customer_name || ','
FROM customers;
C.SELECT 'Dear Customer ' || customer_name ','
FROM customers;
D.SELECT 'Dear Customer ' || customer_name || ','
FROM customers;
E.SELECT "Dear Customer " || customer_name || ","
FROM customers;
F.SELECT 'Dear Customer ' || customer_name || ',' ||
FROM customers;
Answer: D

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